Paul wrote of the Son of Perdition:
"Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;" (2 Thessalonians 2:3)
So did Jesus:
"While I was with them in the world, I kept them in thy name: those that thou gavest me I have kept, and none of them is lost, but the son of perdition; that the scripture might be fulfilled." (John 17:12)
The son of perdition Paul wrote about also had this characteristic:
"[He] opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that he is God." (2 Thessalonians 2:3)
The one Jesus spoke of is generally assumed to be Judas. Recall when he was being arrested:
"Jesus answered, I have told you that I am he: if therefore ye seek me, let these go their way: That the saying might be fulfilled, which he spake, Of them which thou gavest me have I lost none." (John 18:8-9)
Were they the same?
Some background:
According to conservative estimates, the Gospel of John was written in the 50's. The generally accepted theory is a later date. Second Thessalonians is generally agreed to have been written by Paul in the early 50's.
There are no additional references regarding the temple Paul wrote about in Thessalonians, whether it was in Jerusalem, Rome, or elsewhere. There was a temple in Jerusalem, and there were some in the Roman Empire, when Paul wrote the epistle.
The one in Jerusalem was already targeted for destruction, as far back as the days of Moses (Deut 28.) There was possibly a brief history of the Roman temples being used for Caesar worship in the first century.
Please provide scriptural references for your theories. That is, let the scripture prove the scripture.
"... in the mouth of two or three witnesses every word may be established." (Matthew 18:16)
"Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;" (2 Thessalonians 2:3)
So did Jesus:
"While I was with them in the world, I kept them in thy name: those that thou gavest me I have kept, and none of them is lost, but the son of perdition; that the scripture might be fulfilled." (John 17:12)
The son of perdition Paul wrote about also had this characteristic:
"[He] opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that he is God." (2 Thessalonians 2:3)
The one Jesus spoke of is generally assumed to be Judas. Recall when he was being arrested:
"Jesus answered, I have told you that I am he: if therefore ye seek me, let these go their way: That the saying might be fulfilled, which he spake, Of them which thou gavest me have I lost none." (John 18:8-9)
Were they the same?
Some background:
According to conservative estimates, the Gospel of John was written in the 50's. The generally accepted theory is a later date. Second Thessalonians is generally agreed to have been written by Paul in the early 50's.
There are no additional references regarding the temple Paul wrote about in Thessalonians, whether it was in Jerusalem, Rome, or elsewhere. There was a temple in Jerusalem, and there were some in the Roman Empire, when Paul wrote the epistle.
The one in Jerusalem was already targeted for destruction, as far back as the days of Moses (Deut 28.) There was possibly a brief history of the Roman temples being used for Caesar worship in the first century.
Please provide scriptural references for your theories. That is, let the scripture prove the scripture.
"... in the mouth of two or three witnesses every word may be established." (Matthew 18:16)