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Hello. I want to begin by saying that I'm NOT here simply to troll or antagonize preterists. I'm pursuing truth and am completely open to the possibility that preterism is true. In order to find out if it's true or not I need to challenge it and see if it can stand up to the arguments against it. So please don't be angry at me posting things contrary to preterism, I'm just curious as to how preterists respond to arguments against their position. I hope that's okay.
With that being said, I want to make an argument against the preterist interpretation of of the Greek word "parousia", usually translated as "coming" in the New Testament. The vast majority of the the times this word is used refer to Christ coming back (either in the future or at 70 AD, obviously depending upon your eschatology). There are a few references that don't apply to Christ.
"Parousia" is typically defined in various lexicons as "presence", "coming", "arrival", "advent", with some pointing out that it refers to "presence after absence". But upon what basis do preterists claim that this term is reasonably be applied to Christ spiritually coming on the clouds in AD 70? How can Christ spiritually coming in clouds reasonably be interpreted as his presence dwelling with people?
There seems to be several verses in the New Testament that define "parousia" as to physically arrive and dwell with people.
1 Corinthians 16:17, “I am glad about the coming of Stephanas, Fortunatus, and Achaicus, for what was lacking on your part they supplied.”
2 Corinthians 6:6-7, “Nevertheless God, who comforts the downcast, comforted us by the coming of Titus, 7 and not only by his coming, but also by the consolation with which he was comforted in you, when he told us of your earnest desire, your mourning, your zeal for me, so that I rejoiced even more.”
Paul is not glad and comforted by people being with him in spirit, but by people physically arriving and dwelling with him in their bodily presence.
2 Corinthians 10:10, “’For his letters,’ they say, ‘are weighty and powerful, but his bodily presence is weak, and his speech contemptible.”
Here Paul is clearly using "parousia" to refer to his "bodily presence", so shouldn't we expect Jesus to be using the word in the same way?
Philippians 1:25-26, “And being confident of this, I know that I shall remain and continue with you all for your progress and joy of faith, 26 that your rejoicing for me may be more abundant in Jesus Christ by my coming to you again.”
Philippians 2:12, “Therefore, my beloved, as you have always obeyed, not as in my presence only, but now much more in my absence, work out your own salvation with fear and trembling;”
These two verses in Philippians likewise clearly use "parousia" to refer to a physical arrival and presence.
In contrast to this, when Paul wanted to talk about being with people spiritually he used to term "pareimi pneuma", "present in spirit", such as in 1 Corinthians 5:3. So if, in the Olivet Discourse, Jesus was referring to being present in spirit in the clouds why didn't he use that term? Why did he instead use a term that seems to refer to physical presence?
Does anything in the Bible support the preterist understanding of parousia? Perhaps something in the Greek Old Testament uses it in a spiritual way? I don't know, but I'd love to know what preterists think, so if anyone would let me know how they understand this term I'd greatly appreciate it. Thank you.
With that being said, I want to make an argument against the preterist interpretation of of the Greek word "parousia", usually translated as "coming" in the New Testament. The vast majority of the the times this word is used refer to Christ coming back (either in the future or at 70 AD, obviously depending upon your eschatology). There are a few references that don't apply to Christ.
"Parousia" is typically defined in various lexicons as "presence", "coming", "arrival", "advent", with some pointing out that it refers to "presence after absence". But upon what basis do preterists claim that this term is reasonably be applied to Christ spiritually coming on the clouds in AD 70? How can Christ spiritually coming in clouds reasonably be interpreted as his presence dwelling with people?
There seems to be several verses in the New Testament that define "parousia" as to physically arrive and dwell with people.
1 Corinthians 16:17, “I am glad about the coming of Stephanas, Fortunatus, and Achaicus, for what was lacking on your part they supplied.”
2 Corinthians 6:6-7, “Nevertheless God, who comforts the downcast, comforted us by the coming of Titus, 7 and not only by his coming, but also by the consolation with which he was comforted in you, when he told us of your earnest desire, your mourning, your zeal for me, so that I rejoiced even more.”
Paul is not glad and comforted by people being with him in spirit, but by people physically arriving and dwelling with him in their bodily presence.
2 Corinthians 10:10, “’For his letters,’ they say, ‘are weighty and powerful, but his bodily presence is weak, and his speech contemptible.”
Here Paul is clearly using "parousia" to refer to his "bodily presence", so shouldn't we expect Jesus to be using the word in the same way?
Philippians 1:25-26, “And being confident of this, I know that I shall remain and continue with you all for your progress and joy of faith, 26 that your rejoicing for me may be more abundant in Jesus Christ by my coming to you again.”
Philippians 2:12, “Therefore, my beloved, as you have always obeyed, not as in my presence only, but now much more in my absence, work out your own salvation with fear and trembling;”
These two verses in Philippians likewise clearly use "parousia" to refer to a physical arrival and presence.
In contrast to this, when Paul wanted to talk about being with people spiritually he used to term "pareimi pneuma", "present in spirit", such as in 1 Corinthians 5:3. So if, in the Olivet Discourse, Jesus was referring to being present in spirit in the clouds why didn't he use that term? Why did he instead use a term that seems to refer to physical presence?
Does anything in the Bible support the preterist understanding of parousia? Perhaps something in the Greek Old Testament uses it in a spiritual way? I don't know, but I'd love to know what preterists think, so if anyone would let me know how they understand this term I'd greatly appreciate it. Thank you.