Tony Hyman
Member
I have been looking for some sort of reason or "formula" (I am sure not the only one)
why some reference to the written or spoken "words" of God or Christ as written in Holy Scripture, accepted Canon.Possibly the particular audience Jew or Greek which the author had in mind Mathew - Jewish audience, John-Greek audience ect.
Taking Mt 4:4 "Christ tested or tempted" the "rhema" is used "word " yet in Mt 24: word = logos.2 Cor 2:17 word=logos.So why is it "rhema" an not "logos" in Mt4:4. Reference to Deut 8:5 is also to be considered.
why some reference to the written or spoken "words" of God or Christ as written in Holy Scripture, accepted Canon.Possibly the particular audience Jew or Greek which the author had in mind Mathew - Jewish audience, John-Greek audience ect.
Taking Mt 4:4 "Christ tested or tempted" the "rhema" is used "word " yet in Mt 24: word = logos.2 Cor 2:17 word=logos.So why is it "rhema" an not "logos" in Mt4:4. Reference to Deut 8:5 is also to be considered.