Historic and Dispensational Premillennialism, Postmillennialism, Amillennialism, Inmillennialism, Preterism, ... It looks like we have a never ending list of end time models! How to sort this confusion out?
As conflicting as they could be, these models have all something in common: they are all highly dependent on the outcome of the following question: Is there any future for racial Israel (or “Israel after the flesh” as expressed in 1 Cor. 10:18), or did it ceased to be a nation in the eyes of God? Therefore half of the work to sort this confusion out would be done if we could find an answer to this question!
Note: this question does not concern how each individual is saved. Indeed, as far as I know, all models, at least in their mainstream form, insist that each individual is only saved by the faith in Jesus-Christ as stated by Acts 4:12: “Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved.”
There is a principle to interpret the Bible, which I believe was also highlighted by the reformers: “The clear interprets the obscure”, or: “the explicit interprets the implicit.” This means that we are not to use an obscure passage of the Bible to try to answer our question when there are already much clearer passages that provide an explicit answer! In our case, I can't think of a passage that more explicitly covers the state and the destiny of earthly Israel than Romans 9 to 11. So do we agree that a correct interpretation of this passage is the starting point to help us to have the right eschatological view?
I understand that Romans 9 to 11:11 covers the present state of earthly Israel, which is in short: “According as it is written, God hath given them the spirit of slumber, eyes that they should not see, and ears that they should not hear, unto this day” (11:8). Starting at v.12, things start to be interesting... Indeed, when I read v. 12, 15 and 25-36, I see a plan of God for a restoration of the racial Israel at some point in the future, which is not a promise bounded to some conditions but determined by God's eternal counsel (v. 32-36).
Note: by restoration, I mean that the veil “upon their heart” that is “unto this day” (2 Cor. 3:15), will be some day removed from them, for “the receiving of them” (v.15), so that “all Israel shall be saved” (v.26). I however don't see in this passage whether the dispensationalist view of the restoration of a earthly kingdom of Israel is correct or not. Anyway, I conclude that God has a plan for the future of earthly Israel!
If you don't agree with my conclusion, here is my question to you: In v. 28, we read: “As concerning the gospel, they are enemies for your sakes: but as touching the election, they are beloved for the fathers' sakes.” According to the context of this verse, which is Rom. 9 to 11, or more precisely: the immediate context, which is v. 25-31, who are these beloved enemies? And how do you explain the paradox that these enemies are called “beloved”, which is a strong word? Indeed, Jesus was called “beloved” too (Luke 3:22).
As conflicting as they could be, these models have all something in common: they are all highly dependent on the outcome of the following question: Is there any future for racial Israel (or “Israel after the flesh” as expressed in 1 Cor. 10:18), or did it ceased to be a nation in the eyes of God? Therefore half of the work to sort this confusion out would be done if we could find an answer to this question!
Note: this question does not concern how each individual is saved. Indeed, as far as I know, all models, at least in their mainstream form, insist that each individual is only saved by the faith in Jesus-Christ as stated by Acts 4:12: “Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved.”
There is a principle to interpret the Bible, which I believe was also highlighted by the reformers: “The clear interprets the obscure”, or: “the explicit interprets the implicit.” This means that we are not to use an obscure passage of the Bible to try to answer our question when there are already much clearer passages that provide an explicit answer! In our case, I can't think of a passage that more explicitly covers the state and the destiny of earthly Israel than Romans 9 to 11. So do we agree that a correct interpretation of this passage is the starting point to help us to have the right eschatological view?
I understand that Romans 9 to 11:11 covers the present state of earthly Israel, which is in short: “According as it is written, God hath given them the spirit of slumber, eyes that they should not see, and ears that they should not hear, unto this day” (11:8). Starting at v.12, things start to be interesting... Indeed, when I read v. 12, 15 and 25-36, I see a plan of God for a restoration of the racial Israel at some point in the future, which is not a promise bounded to some conditions but determined by God's eternal counsel (v. 32-36).
Note: by restoration, I mean that the veil “upon their heart” that is “unto this day” (2 Cor. 3:15), will be some day removed from them, for “the receiving of them” (v.15), so that “all Israel shall be saved” (v.26). I however don't see in this passage whether the dispensationalist view of the restoration of a earthly kingdom of Israel is correct or not. Anyway, I conclude that God has a plan for the future of earthly Israel!
If you don't agree with my conclusion, here is my question to you: In v. 28, we read: “As concerning the gospel, they are enemies for your sakes: but as touching the election, they are beloved for the fathers' sakes.” According to the context of this verse, which is Rom. 9 to 11, or more precisely: the immediate context, which is v. 25-31, who are these beloved enemies? And how do you explain the paradox that these enemies are called “beloved”, which is a strong word? Indeed, Jesus was called “beloved” too (Luke 3:22).
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