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Jesus Christ Claims to be Yahweh - John 8:23-25

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SolaScriptura

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“And He said to them, “You are from beneath; I am from above. You are of this world; I am not of this world. Therefore I said to you that you will die in your sins for if you do not believe that I am, you will die in your sins. Then they said to Him, Who are You? And Jesus said to them, “Just what I have been saying to you from the beginning” (John 8:23-25)

Jesus is here responding to the Pharisees, who had asked Him, “where is your Father?” (verse 19). Jesus replies, “Jesus answered, “You know neither Me nor My Father. If you had known Me, you would have known My Father also” (19). Jesus goes on to tell the Pharisees, that He is “not of this world”, but “from above”, which is “from heaven” (see, John 3:13 [KJV], 31; 6:62). For Jesus to have Come from heaven, can only mean that He is not a “human Person”, and can only refer to His Deity, as no human can ever say what Jesus does. Earlier, in chapter 5, when Jesus heals the man who could not walk for 38 years, on the Sabbath Day. The Jews were trying to murder Jesus, for what He had done. Jesus’ response is, “ho pater mou heōs arti ergazetai kagō ergazomai” (verse 17), literally, “My Father keeps on working at present and I am also working”. To justify what He was doing, by working on the Sabbath Day, which these Jews understood as breaking the Law of God, Jesus answers them, that His Father is also actively Working with Him (so the Greek tense, ergazetai, ergazomai). So, if He was breaking the Law by healing on the Sabbath Day, so was God the Father, breaking the Law, as He is also Working with Jesus. In John 14:10, Jesus says, “Do you not believe that I am in the Father and the Father is in me? The words that I say to you I do not speak on my own authority, but the Father who dwells in Me does (poiei, active present) His works”. Whatever Jesus did, His Father also did WITH Him. Jesus’ response in 5:17, enraged the Jews even more, “This is why the Jews began trying all the more to kill Him: Not only was He breaking the Sabbath, but He was even calling God His own Father (patera idion, Uniquely), making Himself equal with God” (verse 18). Jesus’ words and action are clear to the Jews, and the correctly understood Him as, “ison heauton poiōn tōi theōi”, where the Greek, “ison (equal)” denotes, “to claim for one's self the nature, rank, authority, which belong to God, Jn. v. 18” (J H Thayer, Greek Lexicon, p.307. Thayer was a Unitarian, who denied the Deity of Jesus Christ).

In chapter 8:24, Jesus says to the Pharisees, that they “will die in your sins for if you do not believe that I am (egō eimi)”. To which the Jews respond, “Who are You”? (verse 25). To which question, Jesus replies, “tēn archēn hoti kai lalō humin”. The words spoken here by Jesus, are not, as some suppose, to be, as a question to the Pharisees, where, “tēn archēn”, is to be understood as an adverb, “altogether, absolutely,’ or ‘first of all,’ or ‘from the first’”; and is translated by some, “How is it that I even speak to you at all?, which is absurd, as Jesus continues to speak to them. Rather, “tēn archēn”, here is as a substantive, which is a declaration, “the Beginning just what I have been telling you”. “tēn archēn” clarifies what Jesus says in the previous verse, “egō eimi”, “I am The Beginning”, which is a clear reference to His Deity. In Hebrews 3:14, the Greek, “tēn archēn”, clearly has this meaning, “if we hold fast the beginning (tēn archēn) of our assurance firm until the end” (NASB, KJV, NKJV, ASV, RV, WEB, YLT, etc). Which is also so translated in some English Versions, in Genesis 41:21 “as at the beginning” (KJV, NKJV, ESV, RV, WEB), where the Greek Old Testament (LXX) has, “tēn archēn”. In Revelation 22:13, Jesus says of Himself, “I am the Alpha and the Omega, the first and the last, the beginning and the end (hē archē kai to telos)”, which is what Psalm 90:2 says, “Even from everlasting to everlasting, You are God”.

It is clear from the context of John 8:24, that Jesus means by “egō eimi”, that “I AM YHWH”. Those who did not believe, that Jesus Christ is “YHWH”, would remain in, and die in their sins, as they would be denying that He is Almighty God, which the Scriptures Testify to. This is made more clear, from the end of this same chapter in John, where Jesus again responds to the Jews, who in verse 53, say to Jesus, “Are you greater than our father, Abraham, who died? The prophets died. Who do you make yourself out to be?” In verse 25 we had, “who are you?”, and here again, “Who do you make yourself out to be?” Are you “greater” than Abraham, and the other Prophets in the Old Testament? In verse 56, Jesus makes bold statement, “Your father Abraham rejoiced to see My day. He saw it, and was glad”. Which refers to the Visit of Yahweh to Abraham and Sarah, in Genesis 18, where it is clear that Yahweh was literally on earth with them, and they SAW Jesus Christ in His pre-Incarnate Person. In verse 57 we read, “The Jews therefore said to him, “You are not yet fifty years old, and have you seen Abraham?”. In other words, you are not even 50 years old, and you are claiming to have “seen Abraham”. To which Jesus replies, “Jesus said to them, “Most certainly, I tell you, before Abraham came into existence, I AM”. The Greek here is very important, “prin Abraam genesthai egō eimi”, which is literally, “before Abraham came into existence (genesthai), I AM”, which is the timeless present, “eimi”.

In verse 59 we are told, “At that, they picked up stones to throw at Him. But Jesus was hidden and went out of the temple complex”. The Jews wanted to stone Jesus to death, as they tried to in John chapter 5, because, like there, they clearly understood Jesus as making a direct claim to be YHWH. The Jews in the first century, used the LXX Old Testament, and knew exactly what Jesus says in verse 58, and His contrast to the coming into existence of Abraham. In Exodus chapter 3, where “The Messenger (One sent) of Yahweh”, appears to Moses in the Burning Bush, and says that He is God, and Yahweh, says to Moses who asks Him of His Name, “Ehyeh ’ăsher ’ehyeh”, which is best translated as, “I am Who I am”, that is, The Eternal, Ever-Present God. The Hebrew verb, “’ehyeh”, is the root for the Name, “Yᵉhôvâh”. The Jewish LXX reads here, “egō eimi ho on”, “I am the Eternal One”, which is what Jesus says of Himself in Revelation 1:18, “ho zōn”, Present active articular participle of zaō, “The Ever-Living One”.

For those who don’t have a bias against the Bible’s clear Teaching on the absolute Deity of the Lord Jesus Christ, that He is as much as GOD as the Father and Holy Spirit, accepting the words of Jesus in John 8:24, 25, 58, as His own Testimony to Who He is, should not be a problem. This Great Truth can only be grasped by the Holy Spirit opening our eyes.
 
Greetings SolaScriptura,
For those who don’t have a bias against the Bible’s clear Teaching on the absolute Deity of the Lord Jesus Christ, that He is as much as GOD as the Father and Holy Spirit, accepting the words of Jesus in John 8:24, 25, 58, as His own Testimony to Who He is, should not be a problem. This Great Truth can only be grasped by the Holy Spirit opening our eyes.
Is Jesus claiming to be Deity or Yahweh in John 8:28 which has the same words as John 8:24 and John 8:58.
John 8:28 (KJV): Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he, and that I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things.
Rather here, Jesus is a mortal, frail human, and he speaks of his absolute dependence upon the One God, His Father. The expression "I am he" is part of the theme of whether or not Jesus is the Christ.

Another Scripture that is part of this theme is:
John 4:25–26 (KJV): 25 The woman saith unto him, I know that Messias cometh, which is called Christ: when he is come, he will tell us all things. 26 Jesus saith unto her, I that speak unto thee am he.
Jesus is not claiming to be Deity here.

Kind regards
Trevor
 
Greetings SolaScriptura,

Is Jesus claiming to be Deity or Yahweh in John 8:28 which has the same words as John 8:24 and John 8:58.
John 8:28 (KJV): Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he, and that I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things.
Rather here, Jesus is a mortal, frail human, and he speaks of his absolute dependence upon the One God, His Father. The expression "I am he" is part of the theme of whether or not Jesus is the Christ.

Another Scripture that is part of this theme is:
John 4:25–26 (KJV): 25 The woman saith unto him, I know that Messias cometh, which is called Christ: when he is come, he will tell us all things. 26 Jesus saith unto her, I that speak unto thee am he.
Jesus is not claiming to be Deity here.

Kind regards
Trevor

Jesus is The Christ, or Messiah, Who is "God manifested in the flesh", which is the Original reading in 1 Timothy 3:16

The fact that we have the Prophecy in Isaiah 40:3, for the Coming of YHWH,

"The voice of one crying in the wilderness: “Prepare the way of YHWH; Make straight in the desert A highway for our God"

and then it is said in Matthew 3:3, "For this is he who was spoken of by the prophet Isaiah, saying: “The voice of one crying in the wilderness: ‘Prepare the way of the LORD (YHWH); Make His paths straight.’ ”.

It is very clear according to this, that the Coming of Jesus Christ, is the Coming of YHWH, or do you suppose that Matthew and the other Gospels are wrong?

I really cannot see how anyone can ever deny that Jesus Christ is YHWH, Almighty God, when this passage in Isaiah, which is fulfilled in the Coming of Jesus Christ, is so clear?

Forget one's "theology", and accept what the Bible actually says about Jesus Christ!
 
Jesus is The Christ, or Messiah, Who is "God manifested in the flesh", which is the Original reading in 1 Timothy 3:16

The fact that we have the Prophecy in Isaiah 40:3, for the Coming of YHWH,

"The voice of one crying in the wilderness: “Prepare the way of YHWH; Make straight in the desert A highway for our God"

and then it is said in Matthew 3:3, "For this is he who was spoken of by the prophet Isaiah, saying: “The voice of one crying in the wilderness: ‘Prepare the way of the LORD (YHWH); Make His paths straight.’ ”.

It is very clear according to this, that the Coming of Jesus Christ, is the Coming of YHWH, or do you suppose that Matthew and the other Gospels are wrong?

I really cannot see how anyone can ever deny that Jesus Christ is YHWH, Almighty God, when this passage in Isaiah, which is fulfilled in the Coming of Jesus Christ, is so clear?

Forget one's "theology", and accept what the Bible actually says about Jesus Christ!
.....................................................
1 Tim. 3:16 ("God was manifest in the flesh")

As this is translated in the KJV it makes Paul say that Jesus is God "manifest in the flesh."
Although the KJV translates 1 Tim. 3:16 with "God" as above, nearly all other translations today use a word which refers, not to God, but to Jesus: "he" (NIV; RSV; NRSV; JB; NJB; REB; NAB [`70]; AT; GNB; CBW; and Beck's translation), "he who" (ASV; NASB; NEB; MLB; BBE; Phillips; and Moffatt), "who," or "which." Even the equally old Douay version has "which was manifested in the flesh." All the very best modern NT texts by trinitarian scholars (including Westcott and Hort, Nestle, and the text by the United Bible Societies) have the NT Greek word oV ("who") here instead of qeoV ("God"). Why do the very best trinitarian scholars support this NON-trinitarian translation of 1 Tim. 3:16?

Noted trinitarian Bible scholar Dr. Frederick C. Grant writes:
“A capital example [of NT manuscript changes] is found in 1 Timothy 3:16, where ‘OS’ (OC or ὃς, ‘who’) was later taken for theta sigma with a bar above, which stood for theos (θεὸς, ‘god’). Since the new reading suited …. the orthodox doctrine of the church [trinitarian, at this later date], it got into many of the later manuscripts – though the majority even of Byzantine manuscripts still preserved the true reading.” – p. 656, Encyclopedia Americana, vol. 3, 1957 ed. (This same statement by Dr. Grant was still to be found in the latest Encyclopedia Americana that I examined – the 1990 ed., pp.696-698, vol. 3.)

A
Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament by the United Bible Societies (1971 ed.) tells why the trinitarian UBS Committee chose ὃς [‘who’ or ‘he who’] as the original reading in their NT text for this verse:
“it is supported by the earliest and best uncials.” And, “Thus, no uncial (in the first hand [by the ORIGINAL writer]) earlier than the eighth or ninth century supports θεὸς [“God”]; all ancient versions presuppose ὃς [or OC, “who” - masc.] or [“which” - neut.]; and no patristic writer prior to the last third of the fourth century [370 A.D.] testifies to the reading θεὸς. The reading θεὸς arose either (a) accidentally, through the misreading of OC as ΘC, or (b) deliberately....” - p. 641.

In actuality it appears to be a combination of both (with the emphasis on the latter). You see, the word ὃς was written in the most ancient manuscripts as OC (“C” being a common form for the ancient Greek letter “S” at that time). Most often at this time the word for God (θεὸς) was written in abbreviated form as ΘC. However, to show that it was an abbreviated form a straight line, or bar, was always drawn above ΘC. So no copyist should have mistaken ὃς (or OC) for ΘC, in spite of their similarities, simply because of the prominent bar which appeared over the one and not over the other.

What may have happened was discovered by John J. Wetstein in 1714. As he was carefully examining one of the oldest NT manuscripts then known (the Alexandrine Manuscript in London) he noticed at 1 Tim. 3:16 that the word originally written there was OC but that a horizontal stroke from one of the words written on the other side of the manuscript showed through very faintly in the middle of the O. This still would not qualify as an abbreviation for θεὸς, of course, but Wetstein discovered that some person at a much later date and in a different style from the original writer had deliberately added a bar above the original word! Anyone copying from this manuscript after it had been deliberately changed would be likely to incorporate the counterfeit ΘC [with bar above it] into his new copy (especially since it reflected his own trinitarian views)!

Of course, since Wetstein’s day many more ancient NT manuscripts have been discovered and none of them before the eighth century A.D. have been found with ΘC (“God”) at this verse!

Trinitarian scholar Murray J. Harris also concludes:

“The strength of the external evidence favoring OC [‘who’], along with considerations of transcriptional and intrinsic probability, have prompted textual critics virtually unanimously to regard OC as the original text, a judgment reflected in NA(26) [Nestle-Aland text] and UBS (1,2,3) [United Bible Societies text] (with a ‘B’ rating) [also the Westcott & Hort text]. Accordingly, 1 Tim 3:16 is not an instance of the Christological [‘Jesus is God’] use of θεὸς.” - Jesus as God, p. 268, Baker Book House, 1992.

And very trinitarian (Southern Baptist) NT Greek scholar A. T. Robertson wrote about this scripture:

He who (hos [or OC in the original text]). The correct text, not theos (God) the reading of the Textus Receptus ... nor ho (neuter relative [pronoun]), agreeing with [the neuter] musterion [‘mystery’] the reading of Western documents.” - p. 577, Vol. 4, Word Pictures in the New Testament, Broadman Press.
And even hyper-trinitarian NT Greek scholar, Daniel B. Wallace uses the relative pronoun ὃς (‘who’) in this scripture and tells us:

“The textual variant θεὸς [‘god’] in the place of ὃς[‘who’ or ‘he who’] has been adamantly defended by some scholars, particularly those of the ‘majority text’ school. Not only is such a reading poorly attested, but the syntactical argument that ‘mystery’ (μυστήριον) being a neuter noun, cannot be followed by the masculine pronoun (ὃς) is entirely without weight. As attractive theologically [for trinitarians, of course] as the reading θεὸς may be, it is spurious. To reject it is not to deny the deity of Christ, of course; it is just to deny any explicit reference in this text.” [italicized emphasis is by Wallace]. - pp. 341-342, Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics, Zondervan, 1996.


The correct rendering of 1 Tim. 3:16, then, is: “He who was revealed in the flesh ….” - NASB. Cf. ASV; RSV; NRSV; NAB; JB; NJB; NIV; NEB; REB; ESV; Douay-Rheims; TEV; CEV; BBE; NLV; God’s Word; New Century Version; Holman NT; ISV NT; Lexham English Bible; The Message; Weymouth; Moffatt; etc.
 
By far the strongest, and oldest evidence, is from the quotations made by the Greek Church Fathers, who clearly read θεὸς.

As early as Ignatius, Bishop of Antioch (AD 35-107), the reading θεὸς was the original in 1 Timothy 3:16. In at least 2 places in his Letter to the Ephesians, he writes: “God come in the flesh” (εν σαρκι γενομενοϛ Θεοϛ; Loeb Classical Library, The Apostolic Fathers, Vol. 1, chapter 7, pp. 226, 227); and in chapter 19, “God became manifest in a human way” (Θεου ανθρωπινωϛ ϕανερουμενου, ibid, pp. 238, 239). Clearly references to 1 Timothy 3:16. In chapter 1 of this Letter, Ignatius writes, "εν αιματι Θεου", (by the blood of God). This can only have been a reference to Acts 20:28, “Church of God, which He purchased by His own blood”.

In the next century, we have the theologian Hippolytus (170-236), in his work against the heretic, Noetus, write:

“And even as He was preached then, in the same manner also did He come and manifest Himself, being by the Virgin and the Holy Spirit made a new man; for in that He had the heavenly (nature) of the Father, as the Word and the earthly (nature), as taking to Himself the flesh from the old Adam by the medium of the Virgin, He now, coming forth into the world, was manifested as God in a body, coming forth too as a perfect man. For it was not in mere appearance or by conversion, but in truth, that He became man.” (ANF05. Fathers of the Third Century, sec, 17)

Here there are a number of Bible verses referred to. “by the Virgin and the Holy Spirit”, from Luke 1:35. “as the Word”, from John 1:1. “taking to Himself the flesh from the old Adam”, from 1 Corinthians 15:45-48. “was manifested as God in a body”, from 1 Timothy 3:16. “not in mere appearance or by conversion, but in truth, that He became man”, from 1 John 4:3; 2 John 7.

Not only do we have the early testimony of Ignatius, and Hippolytus, for the reading "Θεοϛ", (a) Gregory Thaumaturgus (213-270); (b) Didymus (313-398); (c) Gregory of Nyssa (330-395), who quotes this text 22 times with Θεοϛ!; (d) Chrysostom (347-407); (e) Cyril Alex. (died 444); (f) Theodoret (393-458); (g) Apollinarius (310-390, heretic!). Here, we have the testimony of writers (all Greek) from the first, to the fifth century, who found Θεοϛ in their copies of 1 Timothy 3:16! The heretic Origen (185-254), who taught that Jesus Christ was a created being, is the earliest quote of ὃς, though in a Latin translation of his work.

The Greek New Testaments of Erasmus (1519); Robert Estienne (1550); Theodore Beza (1598); Elzevir (1624); Johann Jakob Wettstein (1751-52); John Mill (1814) read Θεοϛ. As do William Tyndale (1534); Coverdale (1535); Matthew's (1537); Great Bible (1539); Bishops Bible (1568); Geneva Bible (1560) King James (1611). Wycliffe (1382), followed the Latin Vulgate, and reads, “that thing that”. Between 1775-7, the German scholar, Johann Griesbach, published his critical Greek New Testament, which was against the Textus Receptus. He adopted the reading ὃς, which is the first Greek NT to use this reading. Before this time, two other Germans, Martin Luther (1545), and Johann Albrecht Bengel (1742), read, “Gott”(God).

The evidence for GOD is beyond any doubt, regardless of what the modern versions, and Daniel Wallace might say, who is very much wrong on the Greek grammar!
 
By far the strongest, and oldest evidence, is from the quotations made by the Greek Church Fathers, who clearly read θεὸς.

As early as Ignatius, Bishop of Antioch (AD 35-107), the reading θεὸς was the original in 1 Timothy 3:16. In at least 2 places in his Letter to the Ephesians, he writes: “God come in the flesh” (εν σαρκι γενομενοϛ Θεοϛ; Loeb Classical Library, The Apostolic Fathers, Vol. 1, chapter 7, pp. 226, 227); and in chapter 19, “God became manifest in a human way” (Θεου ανθρωπινωϛ ϕανερουμενου, ibid, pp. 238, 239). Clearly references to 1 Timothy 3:16. In chapter 1 of this Letter, Ignatius writes, "εν αιματι Θεου", (by the blood of God). This can only have been a reference to Acts 20:28, “Church of God, which He purchased by His own blood”.

In the next century, we have the theologian Hippolytus (170-236), in his work against the heretic, Noetus, write:

“And even as He was preached then, in the same manner also did He come and manifest Himself, being by the Virgin and the Holy Spirit made a new man; for in that He had the heavenly (nature) of the Father, as the Word and the earthly (nature), as taking to Himself the flesh from the old Adam by the medium of the Virgin, He now, coming forth into the world, was manifested as God in a body, coming forth too as a perfect man. For it was not in mere appearance or by conversion, but in truth, that He became man.” (ANF05. Fathers of the Third Century, sec, 17)

Here there are a number of Bible verses referred to. “by the Virgin and the Holy Spirit”, from Luke 1:35. “as the Word”, from John 1:1. “taking to Himself the flesh from the old Adam”, from 1 Corinthians 15:45-48. “was manifested as God in a body”, from 1 Timothy 3:16. “not in mere appearance or by conversion, but in truth, that He became man”, from 1 John 4:3; 2 John 7.

Not only do we have the early testimony of Ignatius, and Hippolytus, for the reading "Θεοϛ", (a) Gregory Thaumaturgus (213-270); (b) Didymus (313-398); (c) Gregory of Nyssa (330-395), who quotes this text 22 times with Θεοϛ!; (d) Chrysostom (347-407); (e) Cyril Alex. (died 444); (f) Theodoret (393-458); (g) Apollinarius (310-390, heretic!). Here, we have the testimony of writers (all Greek) from the first, to the fifth century, who found Θεοϛ in their copies of 1 Timothy 3:16! The heretic Origen (185-254), who taught that Jesus Christ was a created being, is the earliest quote of ὃς, though in a Latin translation of his work.

The Greek New Testaments of Erasmus (1519); Robert Estienne (1550); Theodore Beza (1598); Elzevir (1624); Johann Jakob Wettstein (1751-52); John Mill (1814) read Θεοϛ. As do William Tyndale (1534); Coverdale (1535); Matthew's (1537); Great Bible (1539); Bishops Bible (1568); Geneva Bible (1560) King James (1611). Wycliffe (1382), followed the Latin Vulgate, and reads, “that thing that”. Between 1775-7, the German scholar, Johann Griesbach, published his critical Greek New Testament, which was against the Textus Receptus. He adopted the reading ὃς, which is the first Greek NT to use this reading. Before this time, two other Germans, Martin Luther (1545), and Johann Albrecht Bengel (1742), read, “Gott”(God).

The evidence for GOD is beyond any doubt, regardless of what the modern versions, and Daniel Wallace might say, who is very much wrong on the Greek grammar!
There are no original manuscripts of "God manifested in the flesh" of Paul's first letter to Timothy.

Whether or not people documented their personal theology at a later date in their own papers is of a different subject. One person's belief doesn't equal what apostle Paul or the other apostles believed on the matter. Appropriating someone else's writings into what we want Paul to say isn't how evidence or proof works; this is simply an example of confirmation bias.

Paul wrote, "He appeared in the flesh." 1 Timothy 3:16

John wrote, "Jesus Christ is come in the flesh" 2 John 1:7

John wrote, the Word of Life was a thing that was manifested or was revealed in a man. 1 John 1:1-3

"God appeared in the flesh" isn't a Biblical theology. No one produced writings to make a doctrine out of this. God didn't mention it, Jesus didn't mention it, none of the apostles said anything about it.

It means Jesus isn't God.
 
Another very clear text that says Jesus Christ is God, is Colossians 2:2,

"τοῦ μυστηρίου τοῦ θεοῦ Χριστοῦ"

The literal English is,

"The Mystery of The God Christ"

A very similar construction is found in the next chapter,

"τῷ κυρίῳ Χριστῷ δουλεύετε" - verse 24

literally, "The Lord Christ serving"

No one will dispute that here "The Lord Christ" refers to One Person, The Lord Jesus Christ. The exact same is in 2:2, where only One Person is meant, the Lord Jesus Christ.

As far as the Greek grammar is, the only difference is the "case", where 2:2, it is the genitive, and 3:24, it is the dative. This makes no difference to the meaning.

One of the clearest Testimonies to the Actual Deity of Jesus Christ, which Paul goes on to say in 2:9, that in Jesus Christ IS eternally the completeness of Deity. This is the strongest way to describe that Jesus Christ is ALMIGHTY GOD.

Only those who reject what the Bible teaches about Jesus Christ, and believe in their fairy tale "theology", can disagree with Bible TRUTH!
 
One of the clearest Testimonies to the Actual Deity of Jesus Christ, which Paul goes on to say in 2:9, that in Jesus Christ IS eternally the completeness of Deity. This is the strongest way to describe that Jesus Christ is ALMIGHTY GOD.
When the fullness of God dwells in people in the Bible, it doesn't mean that person becomes God. Colossians 2:9 means what it already plainly says; that God was dwelling in Jesus.

God was in Jesus and he didn't become God because when God is in us we don't become God.

Ephesians 3​
19of the love of Christ, and to know this love that surpasses knowledge, that you may be filled with all the fullness of God.
Only those who reject what the Bible teaches about Jesus Christ, and believe in their fairy tale "theology", can disagree with Bible TRUTH!
 
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it is very clear from the comments I read on here, and my many other posts, that those who deny that Jesus Christ is YHWH, are either blinded by the devil, or self-deluded! These is no middle ground for their views, which are 100% contradicted by the Infallible Word of God.

The FACT that we have a clear Prophecy for the Coming of YHWH, in the Prophet Isaiah, which says;

"The voice of one who calls out, “Prepare the Way of YHWH in the wilderness! Make a level Highway in the desert for our God" (40:3)

And, then we have in the Gospels;

"For this is he who was spoken of by the prophet Isaiah, saying: “The voice of one crying in the wilderness: ‘Prepare the way of YHWH; Make His paths straight.’ ” (Matthew 3:3)

Which is also in Mark 1:1-3; Luke 3:4; and John 1:23-24

It is clearly stared, that the Coming of the Lord Jesus Christ, IS The FULFILLMENT of the Coming of YHWH, not God the Father, but the Son/Child spoken of in Isaiah 9:6, Who is called THE MIGHTY GOD.

There can be NO reasonable person who can look at Isaiah 40:3, and the words in the Four Gospels, that are VERY CLEAR that Jesus Christ is The One Who fulfilled the Prophecy, and still deny that He is YHWH!

It can ONLY be BLINDNESS or DELUSION, or BOTH!

These passages are more than enough to tell anyone that Jesus Christ IS YHWH.

These are TRUTHS as taught in the Bible. Those who still deny this, or refuse to believe, and fighting directly against what Almighty God says in His Inspired, Perfect Word!
 
Another very clear text that says Jesus Christ is God, is Colossians 2:2,

"τοῦ μυστηρίου τοῦ θεοῦ Χριστοῦ"

The literal English is,

"The Mystery of The God Christ"

A very similar construction is found in the next chapter,

"τῷ κυρίῳ Χριστῷ δουλεύετε" - verse 24

literally, "The Lord Christ serving"

No one will dispute that here "The Lord Christ" refers to One Person, The Lord Jesus Christ. The exact same is in 2:2, where only One Person is meant, the Lord Jesus Christ.

As far as the Greek grammar is, the only difference is the "case", where 2:2, it is the genitive, and 3:24, it is the dative. This makes no difference to the meaning.

One of the clearest Testimonies to the Actual Deity of Jesus Christ, which Paul goes on to say in 2:9, that in Jesus Christ IS eternally the completeness of Deity. This is the strongest way to describe that Jesus Christ is ALMIGHTY GOD.

Only those who reject what the Bible teaches about Jesus Christ, and believe in their fairy tale "theology", can disagree with Bible TRUTH!
..................................................
Col. 2:2
KJV
That their hearts might be comforted, being knit together in love, and unto all riches of the full assurance of understanding, to the acknowledgement of the mystery of God, and of the Father, and of Christ;

ISV
Because they are united in love, I pray that their hearts may be encouraged by all the riches that come from a complete understanding of the full knowledge of the Messiah, who is the mystery of God.

RSV
that their hearts may be encouraged as they are knit together in love, to have all the riches of assured understanding and the knowledge of God’s mystery, of Christ,
 
..................................................
Col. 2:2
KJV
That their hearts might be comforted, being knit together in love, and unto all riches of the full assurance of understanding, to the acknowledgement of the mystery of God, and of the Father, and of Christ;

ISV
Because they are united in love, I pray that their hearts may be encouraged by all the riches that come from a complete understanding of the full knowledge of the Messiah, who is the mystery of God.

RSV
that their hearts may be encouraged as they are knit together in love, to have all the riches of assured understanding and the knowledge of God’s mystery, of Christ,

the oldest known Greek manuscript, which is Papyri 46, dating at the latter half of the 2nd century, reads

"τοῦ μυστηρίου τοῦ θεοῦ Χριστοῦ"

I have given the literal English. The RSV is based on this Greek text, and have paraphrased it to what the Greek does NOT say!

The reading of the ISV, "τοῦ θεοῦ", is later than the 6th century!

The KJV's reading is also of the same late time.

So the evidence is "The Mystery of The God Christ"

These is no way that anyone can get around this!

In the Old Testament, we have the Prophecy of the Birth of Jesus Christ in Isaiah 9:6, where in the Hebrew He is Called, "’êl Gibbôr", which is translated in English, "Mighty God". The exact same is used for the Father is Isaiah 10:21!

The Jehovah's Witnesses also have "Mighty God", https://www.jw.org/en/library/bible/nwt/books/isaiah/9/, which destroys their perversion of John 1:1, "a god"!. HOW can Jesus Christ be MIGHTY GOD, and then reduced to "a god"?

Even the Jews agree with this reading, and expressly say that it is used for THE MESSIAH, Who is the Lord Jesus Christ!

“The prophet said to the house of David, For unto us a Child is born, unto us a Son is given, and He has taken the law upon Himself to keep it. His name is called from eternity, Wonderful, The Mighty God, who liveth to eternity, The Messiah, whose peace shall be great upon us in His days. The greatness of those who do the law shall be magnified, and to those, that preserve peace.” (Rev. C. W. H. Pauli, Targum Jonathan Ben Uziel: The Chaldee Paraphrase on The Prophet Isaiah)

These are FACTS!
 
The correct rendering of 1 Tim. 3:16, then, is: “He who was revealed in the flesh ….” - NASB. Cf. ASV; RSV; NRSV; NAB; JB; NJB; NIV; NEB; REB; ESV; Douay-Rheims; TEV; CEV; BBE; NLV; God’s Word; New Century Version; Holman NT; ISV NT; Lexham English Bible; The Message; Weymouth; Moffatt; etc.

And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness:
God was manifested in the flesh,
Justified in the Spirit,
Seen by angels,
Preached among the Gentiles,
Believed on in the world,
Received up in glory. 1 Timothy 3:16


Theos = God

Context -

but if I am delayed, I write so that you may know how you ought to conduct yourself in the house of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and ground of the truth. 16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness:
God was manifested in the flesh,
Justified in the Spirit,
Seen by angels,
Preached among the Gentiles,
Believed on in the world,
Received up in glory. 1 Timothy 3:15-16



Strongs 2316.png

As plainly seen in the context of the preceding verse, Theos G2316 refers to God.

What you are attempting to try teach us, is Paul changes the meaning of the word Theos from the proceeding verse, God (theos) is used twice, but somehow in the next verse you would have us to believe the word God (theos) refers to a "man".


:hysterical
 
it is very clear from the comments I read on here, and my many other posts, that those who deny that Jesus Christ is YHWH, are either blinded by the devil, or self-deluded! These is no middle ground for their views, which are 100% contradicted by the Infallible Word of God.

The FACT that we have a clear Prophecy for the Coming of YHWH, in the Prophet Isaiah, which says;

"The voice of one who calls out, “Prepare the Way of YHWH in the wilderness! Make a level Highway in the desert for our God" (40:3)

And, then we have in the Gospels;

"For this is he who was spoken of by the prophet Isaiah, saying: “The voice of one crying in the wilderness: ‘Prepare the way of YHWH; Make His paths straight.’ ” (Matthew 3:3)

Which is also in Mark 1:1-3; Luke 3:4; and John 1:23-24

It is clearly stared, that the Coming of the Lord Jesus Christ, IS The FULFILLMENT of the Coming of YHWH, not God the Father, but the Son/Child spoken of in Isaiah 9:6, Who is called THE MIGHTY GOD.

There can be NO reasonable person who can look at Isaiah 40:3, and the words in the Four Gospels, that are VERY CLEAR that Jesus Christ is The One Who fulfilled the Prophecy, and still deny that He is YHWH!

It can ONLY be BLINDNESS or DELUSION, or BOTH!

These passages are more than enough to tell anyone that Jesus Christ IS YHWH.

These are TRUTHS as taught in the Bible. Those who still deny this, or refuse to believe, and fighting directly against what Almighty God says in His Inspired, Perfect Word!
John the Baptist didn't call Jesus YHWH. He called Jesus a man.

John 1​
30This is He of whom I said, ‘A man who comes after me has surpassed me because He was before me.’​

John, for sure, would have been familiar with YHWH's statement of not being a man.

Hosea 11​
9I will not execute the full fury of My anger;​
I will not turn back to destroy Ephraim.​
For I am God and not man—
the Holy One among you—​
and I will not come in wrath.​
Jesus isn't God, Jesus is a man whom YHWH was with beginning at John's baptism.

Acts 10​
37You yourselves know what has happened throughout Judea, beginning in Galilee with the baptism that John proclaimed: 38how God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Spirit and with power, and how Jesus went around doing good and healing all who were oppressed by the devil, because God was with Him.
 
@sola scriptura


To say that the Christ can be Yehovah is a bit of an over read, as Yeshua was made Christ and lord BY GOD according to Peter, can only mean that he is not God and not equal to god.

Acts 2:36 Let all the house of Israel therefore know for certain that GOD HAS MADE HIM BOTH LORD AND CHRIST, this Jesus whom you crucified.” (ESV2011)

Other proofs are

Rev 1:1 The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show to his servants the things that must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John, (ESV2011)

The revelation that was given to Christ was given to him by God which means Yeshua does not know his own revelation and now you would have someone else who is God and he is not.

Rev 3:12 The one who conquers, I will make him a pillar in the temple of MY GOD. Never shall he go out of it, and I will write on him the name of MY GOD, and the name of the city of MY GOD, the new Jerusalem, which comes down from MY GOD out of heaven, and MY OWN NEW NAME. (ESV2011)

In revelation 3:12 Yeshua himself says that he will make the one who conquers a pillar in the temple of his God and repeats his God no less than three times, and at the end he says that he will write the name of his God on the one who conquers and his own new name. it should be noted that His name changes and God’s name does not.

Of course we could discuss the fact that Yeshua is the cornerstone of the temple of God and that the apostles are the foundation of this temple and we ourselves are stone in this temple. This makes all of us even Yeshua the temple of God, and the temple cannot be God.

All your other verses can be seen in this same idea and they are all answered clearly and show Yeshua is not God. There are also many mistranslations in the Bible like the words of exodus in which Yehovah never calls himself “I AM” which would be in Hebrew “ani hu or just ani” but rather he calls himself “the one who is”. Revelation is misread to say that Yeshua is Yehovah when the fact is that both Yeshua and Yehovah are both speaking through an angel at the same time and the words given are meant to identify the speaker, therefore “the one who is who was and who is coming” is Yehovah the father speaking not yeshua and this is exactly what “eye hasher eyeh” means in exodus as per Jewish teaching in schmot rabah 3:6. That God the father came in the flesh, simply means that the father was in the temple of the flesh of Yeshua the temple not made with hands.

John 14:10 Do you not believe that I am in the Father and THE FATHER IS IN ME? The words that I say to you I do not speak on my own authority, but the Father who dwells in me does his works. (ESV2011)

God the father is IN YESHUA his temple. He says this so many times how can one miss it.
 
@sola scriptura


To say that the Christ can be Yehovah is a bit of an over read, as Yeshua was made Christ and lord BY GOD according to Peter, can only mean that he is not God and not equal to god.

Acts 2:36 Let all the house of Israel therefore know for certain that GOD HAS MADE HIM BOTH LORD AND CHRIST, this Jesus whom you crucified.” (ESV2011)

Other proofs are

Rev 1:1 The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show to his servants the things that must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John, (ESV2011)

The revelation that was given to Christ was given to him by God which means Yeshua does not know his own revelation and now you would have someone else who is God and he is not.

Rev 3:12 The one who conquers, I will make him a pillar in the temple of MY GOD. Never shall he go out of it, and I will write on him the name of MY GOD, and the name of the city of MY GOD, the new Jerusalem, which comes down from MY GOD out of heaven, and MY OWN NEW NAME. (ESV2011)

In revelation 3:12 Yeshua himself says that he will make the one who conquers a pillar in the temple of his God and repeats his God no less than three times, and at the end he says that he will write the name of his God on the one who conquers and his own new name. it should be noted that His name changes and God’s name does not.

Of course we could discuss the fact that Yeshua is the cornerstone of the temple of God and that the apostles are the foundation of this temple and we ourselves are stone in this temple. This makes all of us even Yeshua the temple of God, and the temple cannot be God.

All your other verses can be seen in this same idea and they are all answered clearly and show Yeshua is not God. There are also many mistranslations in the Bible like the words of exodus in which Yehovah never calls himself “I AM” which would be in Hebrew “ani hu or just ani” but rather he calls himself “the one who is”. Revelation is misread to say that Yeshua is Yehovah when the fact is that both Yeshua and Yehovah are both speaking through an angel at the same time and the words given are meant to identify the speaker, therefore “the one who is who was and who is coming” is Yehovah the father speaking not yeshua and this is exactly what “eye hasher eyeh” means in exodus as per Jewish teaching in schmot rabah 3:6. That God the father came in the flesh, simply means that the father was in the temple of the flesh of Yeshua the temple not made with hands.

John 14:10 Do you not believe that I am in the Father and THE FATHER IS IN ME? The words that I say to you I do not speak on my own authority, but the Father who dwells in me does his works. (ESV2011)

God the father is IN YESHUA his temple. He says this so many times how can one miss it.

#9 is very clear that you are wrong!
 
the oldest known Greek manuscript, which is Papyri 46, dating at the latter half of the 2nd century, reads

"τοῦ μυστηρίου τοῦ θεοῦ Χριστοῦ"

I have given the literal English. The RSV is based on this Greek text, and have paraphrased it to what the Greek does NOT say!

The reading of the ISV, "τοῦ θεοῦ", is later than the 6th century!

The KJV's reading is also of the same late time.

So the evidence is "The Mystery of The God Christ"

Good post.

I'm not home to look at my books right now but I was astonished at how wildly off the KJV is here (again). Not that I'm unaware of their frequent additions to the text, but I had never noticed how much they added to this particular verse, so I'd be interested to see the AV when I get home. But whatever text Bible Hub is using, it confirms the parallel genitive of Christ and God in 2:2 (τοῦ Θεοῦ, Χριστοῦ). I would think the most legible reading would be "the mystery of Christ our God" for those not completely comfortable with the literal, but the meaning would be the same either way.

Out of curiosity, what text do you favor overall? Not sure if I asked you that before. I've vacillated between Vaticanus and Alexandrinus, but now favor the latter in most instances. Just curious what your take on it was.
 
Good post.

I'm not home to look at my books right now but I was astonished at how wildly off the KJV is here (again). Not that I'm unaware of their frequent additions to the text, but I had never noticed how much they added to this particular verse, so I'd be interested to see the AV when I get home. But whatever text Bible Hub is using, it confirms the parallel genitive of Christ and God in 2:2 (τοῦ Θεοῦ, Χριστοῦ). I would think the most legible reading would be "the mystery of Christ our God" for those not completely comfortable with the literal, but the meaning would be the same either way.

Out of curiosity, what text do you favor overall? Not sure if I asked you that before. I've vacillated between Vaticanus and Alexandrinus, but now favor the latter in most instances. Just curious what your take on it was.

Thanks for your comments.

I don't have any favorite manuscript or text, as in Nestle-Aland, or Westcott and Hort. I usually look at all of the evidence, mainly the quotes in the early Church Fathers, and ancient Versions, like the Old Latin, Syriac, etc.

A good example is 1 Timothy 3:16, where the Greek Codices, Sinaiticus and Vaticanus read "ὃς (Who)", and the 5th century Alexandrinus, is said to be "θεὸς", by some who examined it, and others, "ὃς". When I had the opportunity to examine this manuscript in the British library some 30 years ago, using a microscope, I did see the lines in the contracted form. which would mean "θεὸς".

Much before the time of these manuscripts, which are the works of copyists, the earlier Church Fathers are very interesting and important.

As early as Ignatius, Bishop of Antioch (AD 35-107), the reading θεὸς was the original in 1 Timothy 3:16. In at least 2 places in his Letter to the Ephesians, he writes: “God come in the flesh” (εν σαρκι γενομενοϛ Θεοϛ; Loeb Classical Library, The Apostolic Fathers, Vol. 1, chapter 7, pp. 226, 227); and in chapter 19, “God became manifest in a human way” (Θεου ανθρωπινωϛ ϕανερουμενου, ibid, pp. 238, 239). Clearly references to 1 Timothy 3:16. In chapter 1 of this Letter, Ignatius writes, "εν αιματι Θεου", (by the blood of God). This can only have been a reference to Acts 20:28, “Church of God, which He purchased by His own blood”.

In the next century, we have the theologian Hippolytus (170-236), in his work against the heretic, Noetus, write:

“And even as He was preached then, in the same manner also did He come and manifest Himself, being by the Virgin and the Holy Spirit made a new man; for in that He had the heavenly (nature) of the Father, as the Word and the earthly (nature), as taking to Himself the flesh from the old Adam by the medium of the Virgin, He now, coming forth into the world, was manifested as God in a body, coming forth too as a perfect man. For it was not in mere appearance or by conversion, but in truth, that He became man.” (ANF05. Fathers of the Third Century, sec, 17)

Here there are a number of Bible verses referred to. “by the Virgin and the Holy Spirit”, from Luke 1:35. “as the Word”, from John 1:1. “taking to Himself the flesh from the old Adam”, from 1 Corinthians 15:45-48. “was manifested as God in a body”, from 1 Timothy 3:16. “not in mere appearance or by conversion, but in truth, that He became man”, from 1 John 4:3; 2 John 7.

Not only do we have the early testimony of Ignatius, and Hippolytus, for the reading "Θεοϛ", (a) Gregory Thaumaturgus (213-270); (b) Didymus (313-398); (c) Gregory of Nyssa (330-395), who quotes this text 22 times with Θεοϛ!; (d) Chrysostom (347-407); (e) Cyril Alex. (died 444); (f) Theodoret (393-458); (g) Apollinarius (310-390, heretic!). Here, we have the testimony of writers (all Greek) from the first, to the fifth century, who found Θεοϛ in their copies of 1 Timothy 3:16! The heretic Origen (185-254), who taught that Jesus Christ was a created being, is the earliest quote of ὃς, though in a Latin translation of his work.

The Greek New Testaments of Erasmus (1519); Robert Estienne (1550); Theodore Beza (1598); Elzevir (1624); Johann Jakob Wettstein (1751-52); John Mill (1814) read Θεοϛ. As do William Tyndale (1534); Coverdale (1535); Matthew's (1537); Great Bible (1539); Bishops Bible (1568); Geneva Bible (1560) King James (1611). Wycliffe (1382), followed the Latin Vulgate, and reads, “that thing that”. Between 1775-7, the German scholar, Johann Griesbach, published his critical Greek New Testament, which was against the Textus Receptus. He adopted the reading ὃς, which is the first Greek NT to use this reading. Before this time, two other Germans, Martin Luther (1545), and Johann Albrecht Bengel (1742), read, “Gott”(God).

We don't really need the Greek manuscript evidence, as it is very clear that Paul wrote GOD, as is found in the Greek text of 1 Timothy as early as the first century!

For Colossians 2:2, there are a least 14 variants!
 
Those who claim they are Christians yet don’t believe CHRIST is GOD in the flesh (EMANUEL) ;
If you claim CHRIST is not GOD in the flesh than you are even deeper in trouble for you break the 1st commandment of ‘not having any other god before ME’. For the whole of Christianity is worship of CHRIST and have HIM over your head and as shield of Ephesians 6; not some cloth Vail that does absolutely nothing. CHRIST as our shield protecting against the fiery darts of Satan; we haven’t seen anything yet for antichrist and his 7k fallen cronies are coming back de-facto picking up right where they left off.

1st commandment “thou shall have no other GOD before me”! We as Christians worship CHRIST who was GOD in the flesh; they have 1 spirit-The HOLY SPIRIT. GOD did not ask us to do anything HE HIMSELF wasn’t willing to do, and did with EMANUEL -‘(GOD with us)’ even from very beginning and even before that in 1st age. If you say CHRIST is not GOD than you are committing adultery against GOD who is a jealous GOD, for the whole of Christianity is worshiping CHRIST.
Simple question if you share one spirit than are you one? There is not a separate SPIRIT between GOD the FATHER and the SON, CHRIST, they are 1, with 1 SPIRIT. The whole of Old Testament is about the coming MESSIAH from the Garden of Eden where ‘The TREE of LIFE’ was and even the very first Words where the LIGHT moved over the earth is about CHRIST. The whole of New Testament is about CHRIST 1st advent and 2nd advent and in the millennium and beyond. I can go through the whole OT where in Abraham’s time HE was Melchisedec=KING of the righteousness; to Heb 7:2 To whom also Abraham gave a tenth part of all; first being by interpretation King of righteousness, and after that also King of Salem, which is, King of peace;

There is only one KING of peace. Gen 14:18 And Melchizedek king of Salem brought forth bread and wine: and he was the priest of the most high God.

Gen 14:19 And he blessed him, and said, Blessed be Abram of the most high God, possessor of heaven and earth:
Abraham would of only tithe to GOD HIMSELF being the most righteous of his times and beyond.

The one true PRIEST forever; KING of kings, LORD of lords. An all righteous, pure GOD; GOD cannot look on flesh with out HIS Shekinah glory instantly vaporizing (consuming fire) the flesh because it is as filthy rags. But GOD wanted to be with HIS children, leading, guiding them only to have HIM rejected over and over. HE loves being with those who choose to love HIM so HE comes playing different roles just as Satan does. with only 1 SPIRIT never forsaking us. CHRIST is GOD; 1 SPIRIT; 1 GOD! GOD is fair and righteous with every negative a positive. This way when White Throne judgement comes no one can say HE wasn't fair; and is why HE will not intervene in those with free wills, life unless they ask.
 
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Those who claim they are Christians yet don’t believe CHRIST is GOD in the flesh (EMANUEL) ;
If you claim CHRIST is not GOD in the flesh than you are even deeper in trouble for you break the 1st commandment of ‘not having any other god before ME’. For the whole of Christianity is worship of CHRIST and have HIM over your head and as shield of Ephesians 6; not some cloth Vail that does absolutely nothing. CHRIST as our shield protecting against the fiery darts of Satan; we haven’t seen anything yet for antichrist and his 7k fallen cronies are coming back de-facto picking up right where they left off.

1st commandment “thou shall have no other GOD before me”! We as Christians worship CHRIST who was GOD in the flesh; they have 1 spirit-The HOLY SPIRIT. GOD did not ask us to do anything HE HIMSELF wasn’t willing to do, and did with EMANUEL -‘(GOD with us)’ even from very beginning and even before that in 1st age. If you say CHRIST is not GOD than you are committing adultery against GOD who is a jealous GOD, for the whole of Christianity is worshiping CHRIST.
Simple question if you share one spirit than are you one? There is not a separate SPIRIT between GOD the FATHER and the SON, CHRIST, they are 1, with 1 SPIRIT. The whole of Old Testament is about the coming MESSIAH from the Garden of Eden where ‘The TREE of LIFE’ was and even the very first Words where the LIGHT moved over the earth is about CHRIST. The whole of New Testament is about CHRIST 1st advent and 2nd advent and in the millennium and beyond. I can go through the whole OT where in Abraham’s time HE was Melchisedec=KING of the righteousness; to Heb 7:2 To whom also Abraham gave a tenth part of all; first being by interpretation King of righteousness, and after that also King of Salem, which is, King of peace;

There is only one KING of peace. Gen 14:18 And Melchizedek king of Salem brought forth bread and wine: and he was the priest of the most high God.

Gen 14:19 And he blessed him, and said, Blessed be Abram of the most high God, possessor of heaven and earth:
Abraham would of only tithe to GOD HIMSELF being the most righteous of his times and beyond.

The one true PRIEST forever; KING of kings, LORD of lords. An all righteous, pure GOD; GOD cannot look on flesh with out HIS Shekinah glory instantly vaporizing (consuming fire) the flesh because it is as filthy rags. But GOD wanted to be with HIS children, leading, guiding them only to have HIM rejected over and over. HE loves being with those who choose to love HIM so HE comes playing different roles just as Satan does. with only 1 SPIRIT never forsaking us. CHRIST is GOD; 1 SPIRIT; 1 GOD! GOD is fair and righteous with every negative a positive. This way when White Throne judgement comes no one can say HE wasn't fair; and is why HE will not intervene in those with free wills, life unless they ask.

The Bible says that there are THREE distinct Persons Who are equally Almighty God, in the One Eternal Godhead or Divine Nature

Is this what you believe, or are you Oneness?
 
The Bible says that there are THREE distinct Persons Who are equally Almighty God, in the One Eternal Godhead or Divine Nature

Is this what you believe, or are you Oneness?
I believe in the Trinity there are 3 distinct roles but they are one. This age GOD came in different forms but after the White throne judgement the GODHEAD will be 1 again. They have the same spirit. 3 are 1=trinity. HE came as EMMANUEL because humanity needed to be saved. This age created to give all a choice to love GOD or follow Satan to a consuming fire. Satan drew 1/3rd of GODS children with him at his downfall; GOD did not want to destroy 1/3rd of HIS children without giving them 1 final chance who they choose to love.
Rev 21:22 And I saw no temple therein: for the Lord God Almighty and the Lamb are the temple of it.
 
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