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Again, you are going off of the opinion of man, and in Greek.

We see what is written in the scriptures and context of 1 Timothy 3:16 and the word THEOS (Where we get the word Theology) means GOD.

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. John 1:1

And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth. John 1:14


These things I write to you, though I hope to come to you shortly; but if I am delayed, I write so that you may know how you ought to conduct yourself in the house of God, (G2316 Theos) which is the church of the living God, (G2316 Theos) the pillar and ground of the truth. And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness:
God (G2316 Theos) was manifested in the flesh,
Justified in the Spirit,
Seen by angels,
Preached among the Gentiles,
Believed on in the world,
Received up in glory. 1 Timothy 3:14-16

Question:

Do you believe the meaning of the word THEOS "God", changed in meaning from verse 15, to mean "Man" in verse 16?

I have asked this question three times with no answer from you. If you don't know then just say so.


View attachment 16189

Paul who was Greek, and wrote with the Holy Spirit as his Guide, could NEVER have written in the Greek

"μέγα ἐστὶν τὸ τῆς εὐσεβείας μυστήριον ἐφανερώθη ἐν σαρκί"

This is IMPOSSIBLE Greek grammar in this construction!

The antecedent in this is "μυστήριον", which is NEUTER in gender. To be grammatically correct, Paul would have then written "ὃ", the neuter relative, which would agree with "μυστήριον". "Mystery WHICH was manifested", as read in the LATIN for this!

With the reading "θεὸς", even though is MASCULINE, has agreement with the neuter "μυστήριον", as it is GOD Who was manifested in the flesh!

Even those, like Dr Charles Ellicott, the chair of the 1881 RV committee, who supported the change from "θεὸς" to "ὃς", have admitted that there is a DIFFICULTY in the Greek grammar! This is NOT what the Holy Spirit Writes!
 
You believe that Jesus Christ and the Holy Spirit are YHWH God, that's your choice and your right to believe. I believe differently and not just myself but others some of whom understand Greek grammar too, who disagree that Jesus Christ and the Holy Spirit are YHWH God. We will continue to say and believe that we're Christians no matter how much you disagree. You have a right to disagree. That's the truth about you and I, is that we disagree.
deal with #118, especially Matthew 3:3
 
Those who you have quoted to "support" your understanding of John 1:1, are clearly misusing and abusing the basics of Greek grammar
You have the right to believe how you choose to believe. I will believe what I choose to believe. We just have to agree to disagree.
 
on and on and on it goes in never ending circles of deception.
that is the job/ life work/ purpose of jws in cahoots with rome.
not to learn, not to find the truth, not to seek truth, not to obey Jesus, but to deceive and be deceived.
on and on and on and on and on and on... without remorse, without change, without repentence, without obeying Jesus.
so all the replies to those and other pagan sympathizers
are ignored , but they reply to take up precious time, to waste the time of everyone else , to send as many as possible on the road toward destruction....

YHVH showed mercy to His chosen messengers in the first. He is able to show mercy to those false messengers today, no matter (perhaps) what false beliefs and false teachings they promote.
But arguing and/or debating and/or replying to them is very futile. They would not be allowed in the assembly of believers. They are 'outside' , where God Judges them.

We can't keep them from wasting time here.
Just be aware of it.
 
Paul who was Greek, and wrote with the Holy Spirit as his Guide, could NEVER have written in the Greek

"μέγα ἐστὶν τὸ τῆς εὐσεβείας μυστήριον ἐφανερώθη ἐν σαρκί"

This is IMPOSSIBLE Greek grammar in this construction!

The antecedent in this is "μυστήριον", which is NEUTER in gender. To be grammatically correct, Paul would have then written "ὃ", the neuter relative, which would agree with "μυστήριον". "Mystery WHICH was manifested", as read in the LATIN for this!

With the reading "θεὸς", even though is MASCULINE, has agreement with the neuter "μυστήριον", as it is GOD Who was manifested in the flesh!

Even those, like Dr Charles Ellicott, the chair of the 1881 RV committee, who supported the change from "θεὸς" to "ὃς", have admitted that there is a DIFFICULTY in the Greek grammar! This is NOT what the Holy Spirit Writes!

All just man made opinion. I choose scripture, and the whole counsel of God everytime, over man, and man's opinion.


First we see John write -

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, (G2316 Theos) and the Word was God. (G2316 Theos)
And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth. John 1:1,14

We see from this passage that God the Word (The Son) became flesh.

John 1 Strongs.png


Now The Apostle Paul speaks the same thing about God becoming manifested flesh -


These things I write to you, though I hope to come to you shortly; but if I am delayed, I write so that you may know how you ought to conduct yourself in the house of God, (G2316 Theos) which is the church of the living God, (G2316 Theos) the pillar and ground of the truth. And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness:
God (G2316 Theos) was manifested in the flesh,
Justified in the Spirit,
Seen by angels,
Preached among the Gentiles,
Believed on in the world,
Received up in glory. 1 Timothy 3:14-16

All using the same Greek word Theos.


Brother, if you are so gullible to believe some man try to deny that Jesus is LORD, YHWH the LORD God, because you are too lazy to study the scriptures for yourself then you will just get what you get on that Day!


1 Timothy 3-15-16 with Strongs.png







JLB
 
Again, you are going off of the opinion of man, and in Greek.

We see what is written in the scriptures and context of 1 Timothy 3:16 and the word THEOS (Where we get the word Theology) means GOD.

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. John 1:1

And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth. John 1:14


These things I write to you, though I hope to come to you shortly; but if I am delayed, I write so that you may know how you ought to conduct yourself in the house of God, (G2316 Theos) which is the church of the living God, (G2316 Theos) the pillar and ground of the truth. And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness:
God (G2316 Theos) was manifested in the flesh,
Justified in the Spirit,
Seen by angels,
Preached among the Gentiles,
Believed on in the world,
Received up in glory. 1 Timothy 3:14-16

Question:

Do you believe the meaning of the word THEOS "God", changed in meaning from verse 15, to mean "Man" in verse 16?

I have asked this question three times with no answer from you. If you don't know then just say so.


View attachment 16189
If you're asking me to abandon the best and earliest known Greek manuscripts in favor of an an apparent deliberate alteration to 1 Timothy 3:16 then I couldn't in good conscience do that.

The fact that "God" isn't written in 1 Timothy 3:16 isn't even something I knew until I learned it from Trinitarians. It's actually commonly accepted nowadays that 1 Timothy 3:16 was altered in such a shamefully obvious way. Someone apparently came along and just penned in whatever they wanted in a completely different color ink and and writing style; they didn't even try.

However, the truth prevails. While I love many things about the KJV, it contains heresies such as 1 Timothy 3:16 for example, that were later corrected by other versions based on more up-to-date information and better manuscripts.

So let me ask you a question. Do you say Jesus Christ came in the flesh or God came in the flesh?

1 John 4
2By this you will know the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesses that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God,
 
Last edited:
All just man made opinion. I choose scripture, and the whole counsel of God everytime, over man, and man's opinion.


First we see John write -

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, (G2316 Theos) and the Word was God. (G2316 Theos)
And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth. John 1:1,14

We see from this passage that God the Word (The Son) became flesh.

View attachment 16192


Now The Apostle Paul speaks the same thing about God becoming manifested flesh -


These things I write to you, though I hope to come to you shortly; but if I am delayed, I write so that you may know how you ought to conduct yourself in the house of God, (G2316 Theos) which is the church of the living God, (G2316 Theos) the pillar and ground of the truth. And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness:
God (G2316 Theos) was manifested in the flesh,
Justified in the Spirit,
Seen by angels,
Preached among the Gentiles,
Believed on in the world,
Received up in glory. 1 Timothy 3:14-16

All using the same Greek word Theos.


Brother, if you are so gullible to believe some man try to deny that Jesus is LORD, YHWH the LORD God, because you are too lazy to study the scriptures for yourself then you will just get what you get on that Day!


View attachment 16193







JLB

Exactly what are you on about?
 
The fact that "God" isn't written in 1 Timothy 3:16 isn't even something I knew until I learned it from Trinitarians.

Is God written in 1 Timothy 3:15?

These things I write to you, though I hope to come to you shortly; but if I am delayed, I write so that you may know how you ought to conduct yourself in the house of God, (Theos) which is the church of the living God, (Theos) the pillar and ground of the truth. 1 Timothy 3:14-15

  • Why would the meaning of the Greek word Theos (God) change, from verse 15 to verse 16.

And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness:
God (Theos) was manifested in the flesh,
Justified in the Spirit,
Seen by angels,
Preached among the Gentiles,
Believed on in the world,
Received up in glory. 1 Timothy 3:16


The same word is used by The Apostle John -

1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, (Theos) and the Word was God. (Theos)
John 1:1

And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth. John 1:14
 
Exactly what are you on about?

1 Timothy 3:16 says God was manifested in the flesh.

And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness:
God was manifested in the flesh,
Justified in the Spirit,
Seen by angels,
Preached among the Gentiles,
Believed on in the world,
Received up in glory. 1 Timothy 3:16


Do you believe this?




JLB
 
1 Timothy 3:16 says God was manifested in the flesh.

And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness:
God was manifested in the flesh,
Justified in the Spirit,
Seen by angels,
Preached among the Gentiles,
Believed on in the world,
Received up in glory. 1 Timothy 3:16


Do you believe this?




JLB

Do you read English?
 
1 Timothy 3:16 says God was manifested in the flesh.

And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness:
God was manifested in the flesh,
Justified in the Spirit,
Seen by angels,
Preached among the Gentiles,
Believed on in the world,
Received up in glory. 1 Timothy 3:16


Do you believe this?




JLB
............................................

1 Tim. 3:16 (“God was manifest in the flesh”)

As this is translated in the KJV it makes Paul say that Jesus is God “manifest in the flesh.”

Although the KJV translates 1 Tim. 3:16 with “God” as above, nearly all other translations today use a word which refers, not to God, but to Jesus: “he(NIV; RSV; NRSV; JB; NJB; REB; NAB [‘70]; AT; GNB; CBW; and Beck’s translation), “he who(ASV; NASB; NEB; MLB; BBE; Phillips; and Moffatt), “who,” or “which.” Even the equally old Douay version has “which was manifested in the flesh.” All the very best modern NT texts by trinitarian scholars (including Westcott and Hort, Nestle, and the text by the United Bible Societies) have the NT Greek word ὃς (“who”) here instead of θεὸς (“God”). Why do the very best trinitarian scholars support this NON-trinitarian translation of 1 Tim. 3:16?[7]

Noted Bible scholar Dr. Frederick C. Grant writes:

“A capital example [of NT manuscript changes] is found in 1 Timothy 3:16, where ‘OS’ (OC or ὃς, ‘who’) was later taken for theta sigma with a bar above, which stood for theos (θεὸς, ‘god’). Since the new reading suited …. the orthodox doctrine of the church [trinitarian, at this later date], it got into many of the later manuscripts ….” – p. 656, Encyclopedia Americana, vol. 3, 1957 ed. (This same statement by Dr. Grant was still to be found in the latest Encyclopedia Americana that I examined – the 1990 ed., pp. 696-698, vol. 3.)

A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament by the United Bible Societies (1971 ed.) tells why the trinitarian UBS Committee chose ὃς [‘who’ or ‘he who’] as the original reading in their NT text for this verse:

“it is supported by the earliest and best uncials.” And, “Thus, no uncial (in the first hand [by the ORIGINAL writer of that manuscript]) earlier than the eighth or ninth century supports θεὸς [“God”]; all ancient versions presuppose ὃς [or OC, “who” - masc.] or [“which” - neut.]; and no patristic writer prior to the last third of the fourth century [ca. 370 A.D.] testifies to the reading θεὸς. The reading θεὸς arose either (a) accidentally, through the misreading of OC as ΘC, or (b) deliberately....” - p. 641.

In actuality it appears to be a combination of both (with the emphasis on the latter). You see, the word ὃς was written in the most ancient manuscripts as OC (“C” being a common form for the ancient Greek letter “S” at that time). Most often at this time the word for God (θεὸς) was written in abbreviated form as ΘC. However, to show that it was an abbreviated form, a straight line, or bar, was always drawn above ΘC. So no copyist should have mistaken ὃς (or OC) for ΘC, in spite of their similarities, simply because of the prominent bar which appeared over the one and not over the other.

What may have happened was discovered by John J. Wetstein in 1714. As he was carefully examining one of the oldest NT manuscripts then known (the Alexandrine Manuscript in London) he noticed at 1 Tim. 3:16 that the word originally written there was OC but that a horizontal stroke from one of the words written on the other side of the manuscript showed through very faintly in the middle of the O. This still would not qualify as an abbreviation for θεὸς, of course, but Wetstein discovered that some person at a much later date and in a different style from the original writer had deliberately added a bar above the original word! Anyone copying from this manuscript after it had been deliberately changed would be likely to incorporate the counterfeit ΘC [with bar above it] into his new copy (especially since it reflected his own trinitarian views)!

Of course, since Wetstein’s day many more ancient NT manuscripts have been discovered and none of them before the eighth century A.D. have been found with ΘC (“God”) at this verse!

Trinitarian scholar Murray J. Harris also concludes:

“The strength of the external evidence favoring OC [‘who’], along with considerations of transcriptional and intrinsic probability, have prompted textual critics virtually unanimously to regard OC as the original text, a judgment reflected in NA(26) [Nestle-Aland text] and UBS (1,2,3) [United Bible Societies text] (with a ‘B’ rating) [also the Westcott & Hort text]. Accordingly, 1 Tim 3:16 is not an instance of the Christological [‘Jesus is God’] use of θεὸς.” - Jesus as God, p. 268, Baker Book House, 1992.

And very trinitarian (Southern Baptist) NT Greek scholar A. T. Robertson wrote about this scripture:

He who (hos [or OC in the original text]). The correct text, not theos (God) the reading of the Textus Receptus ... nor ho (neuter relative [pronoun]), agreeing with [the neuter] musterion [‘mystery’] the reading of Western documents.” - p. 577, Vol. 4, Word Pictures in the New Testament, Broadman Press.

And even hyper-trinitarian NT Greek scholar, Daniel B. Wallace uses the relative pronoun ὃς (‘who’) in this scripture and tells us:

“The textual variant θεὸς [‘god’] in the place of ὃς [‘who’ or ‘he who’] has been adamantly defended by some scholars, particularly those of the ‘majority text’ school. Not only is such a reading poorly attested [8], but the syntactical argument that ‘mystery’ (μυστήριον) being a neuter noun, cannot be followed by the masculine pronoun (ὃς) is entirely without weight. As attractive theologically [for trinitarians, of course] as the reading θεὸς may be, it is spurious. To reject it is not to deny the deity of Christ, of course; it is just to deny any explicit reference in this text.” [italicized emphasis is by Wallace]. - pp. 341-342, Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics, Zondervan, 1996.

The correct rendering of 1 Tim. 3:16, then, is: “He who was revealed in the flesh ….” - NASB. Cf. ASV; RSV; NRSV; NAB; JB; NJB; NIV; NEB; REB; ESV; Douay-Rheims; TEV; CEV; BBE; NLV; God’s Word; New Century Version; Holman NT; ISV NT; Lexham English Bible; The Message; Weymouth; Moffatt; etc.

Even if we were to insist that those later manuscripts that used theos were, somehow, correct, we would have to recognize that it is the anarthrous (without the definite article) nominative case theos which we find. This is rarely, if ever, the form used for the only true God (when the known exceptions are taken into account - see MARTIN study). Instead, it either points to the probability that it is a corrupted OC (which of course would not have the article in the first place), or, less probable, but still possible, that Christ is being called “a god” - see the BOWGOD and DEF studies.
 
............................................

1 Tim. 3:16 (“God was manifest in the flesh”)

As this is translated in the KJV it makes Paul say that Jesus is God “manifest in the flesh.”

Although the KJV translates 1 Tim. 3:16 with “God” as above, nearly all other translations today use a word which refers, not to God, but to Jesus: “he(NIV; RSV; NRSV; JB; NJB; REB; NAB [‘70]; AT; GNB; CBW; and Beck’s translation), “he who(ASV; NASB; NEB; MLB; BBE; Phillips; and Moffatt), “who,” or “which.” Even the equally old Douay version has “which was manifested in the flesh.” All the very best modern NT texts by trinitarian scholars (including Westcott and Hort, Nestle, and the text by the United Bible Societies) have the NT Greek word ὃς (“who”) here instead of θεὸς (“God”). Why do the very best trinitarian scholars support this NON-trinitarian translation of 1 Tim. 3:16?[7]

Noted Bible scholar Dr. Frederick C. Grant writes:

“A capital example [of NT manuscript changes] is found in 1 Timothy 3:16, where ‘OS’ (OC or ὃς, ‘who’) was later taken for theta sigma with a bar above, which stood for theos (θεὸς, ‘god’). Since the new reading suited …. the orthodox doctrine of the church [trinitarian, at this later date], it got into many of the later manuscripts ….” – p. 656, Encyclopedia Americana, vol. 3, 1957 ed. (This same statement by Dr. Grant was still to be found in the latest Encyclopedia Americana that I examined – the 1990 ed., pp. 696-698, vol. 3.)

A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament by the United Bible Societies (1971 ed.) tells why the trinitarian UBS Committee chose ὃς [‘who’ or ‘he who’] as the original reading in their NT text for this verse:

“it is supported by the earliest and best uncials.” And, “Thus, no uncial (in the first hand [by the ORIGINAL writer of that manuscript]) earlier than the eighth or ninth century supports θεὸς [“God”]; all ancient versions presuppose ὃς [or OC, “who” - masc.] or [“which” - neut.]; and no patristic writer prior to the last third of the fourth century [ca. 370 A.D.] testifies to the reading θεὸς. The reading θεὸς arose either (a) accidentally, through the misreading of OC as ΘC, or (b) deliberately....” - p. 641.

In actuality it appears to be a combination of both (with the emphasis on the latter). You see, the word ὃς was written in the most ancient manuscripts as OC (“C” being a common form for the ancient Greek letter “S” at that time). Most often at this time the word for God (θεὸς) was written in abbreviated form as ΘC. However, to show that it was an abbreviated form, a straight line, or bar, was always drawn above ΘC. So no copyist should have mistaken ὃς (or OC) for ΘC, in spite of their similarities, simply because of the prominent bar which appeared over the one and not over the other.

What may have happened was discovered by John J. Wetstein in 1714. As he was carefully examining one of the oldest NT manuscripts then known (the Alexandrine Manuscript in London) he noticed at 1 Tim. 3:16 that the word originally written there was OC but that a horizontal stroke from one of the words written on the other side of the manuscript showed through very faintly in the middle of the O. This still would not qualify as an abbreviation for θεὸς, of course, but Wetstein discovered that some person at a much later date and in a different style from the original writer had deliberately added a bar above the original word! Anyone copying from this manuscript after it had been deliberately changed would be likely to incorporate the counterfeit ΘC [with bar above it] into his new copy (especially since it reflected his own trinitarian views)!

Of course, since Wetstein’s day many more ancient NT manuscripts have been discovered and none of them before the eighth century A.D. have been found with ΘC (“God”) at this verse!

Trinitarian scholar Murray J. Harris also concludes:

“The strength of the external evidence favoring OC [‘who’], along with considerations of transcriptional and intrinsic probability, have prompted textual critics virtually unanimously to regard OC as the original text, a judgment reflected in NA(26) [Nestle-Aland text] and UBS (1,2,3) [United Bible Societies text] (with a ‘B’ rating) [also the Westcott & Hort text]. Accordingly, 1 Tim 3:16 is not an instance of the Christological [‘Jesus is God’] use of θεὸς.” - Jesus as God, p. 268, Baker Book House, 1992.

And very trinitarian (Southern Baptist) NT Greek scholar A. T. Robertson wrote about this scripture:

He who (hos [or OC in the original text]). The correct text, not theos (God) the reading of the Textus Receptus ... nor ho (neuter relative [pronoun]), agreeing with [the neuter] musterion [‘mystery’] the reading of Western documents.” - p. 577, Vol. 4, Word Pictures in the New Testament, Broadman Press.

And even hyper-trinitarian NT Greek scholar, Daniel B. Wallace uses the relative pronoun ὃς (‘who’) in this scripture and tells us:

“The textual variant θεὸς [‘god’] in the place of ὃς [‘who’ or ‘he who’] has been adamantly defended by some scholars, particularly those of the ‘majority text’ school. Not only is such a reading poorly attested [8], but the syntactical argument that ‘mystery’ (μυστήριον) being a neuter noun, cannot be followed by the masculine pronoun (ὃς) is entirely without weight. As attractive theologically [for trinitarians, of course] as the reading θεὸς may be, it is spurious. To reject it is not to deny the deity of Christ, of course; it is just to deny any explicit reference in this text.” [italicized emphasis is by Wallace]. - pp. 341-342, Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics, Zondervan, 1996.

The correct rendering of 1 Tim. 3:16, then, is: “He who was revealed in the flesh ….” - NASB. Cf. ASV; RSV; NRSV; NAB; JB; NJB; NIV; NEB; REB; ESV; Douay-Rheims; TEV; CEV; BBE; NLV; God’s Word; New Century Version; Holman NT; ISV NT; Lexham English Bible; The Message; Weymouth; Moffatt; etc.

Even if we were to insist that those later manuscripts that used theos were, somehow, correct, we would have to recognize that it is the anarthrous (without the definite article) nominative case theos which we find. This is rarely, if ever, the form used for the only true God (when the known exceptions are taken into account - see MARTIN study). Instead, it either points to the probability that it is a corrupted OC (which of course would not have the article in the first place), or, less probable, but still possible, that Christ is being called “a god” - see the BOWGOD and DEF studies.

More FALSE information!
 
on and on and on it goes in never ending circles of deception.
that is the job/ life work/ purpose of jws in cahoots with rome.
not to learn, not to find the truth, not to seek truth, not to obey Jesus, but to deceive and be deceived.
on and on and on and on and on and on... without remorse, without change, without repentence, without obeying Jesus.
so all the replies to those and other pagan sympathizers
are ignored , but they reply to take up precious time, to waste the time of everyone else , to send as many as possible on the road toward destruction....

YHVH showed mercy to His chosen messengers in the first. He is able to show mercy to those false messengers today, no matter (perhaps) what false beliefs and false teachings they promote.
But arguing and/or debating and/or replying to them is very futile. They would not be allowed in the assembly of believers. They are 'outside' , where God Judges them.

We can't keep them from wasting time here.
Just be aware of it.
I disagree that we should call another person/persons deceptive, simply because that person/persons has beliefs just like other people and that person has the right to express those beliefs. People have the right to disagree about what is the truth in the scriptures if from their study of the scriptures what they hear from others about what is the truth in the scriptures isn't the truth. I know we all have the right to disagree but i think the only thing we should say is that we should agree to disagree. I expect that we all believe all other human beings to be imperfect human beings, born in sin like the rest of us. So I don't think any of us think we're infallible like God or equal to God in any way, when it comes to the truth in the scriptures. So since none of us believes we are infallible that means none of us believe we can't be wrong about what we believe to be true, no matter how convinced we are what we believe is the truth in the scriptures. However we don't change or abandon what we believe to be the truth from our study of the scriptures just because someone disagrees with us if you honestly believe that person hasn't from the scriptures proved to you that you are not believing and teaching the truth.

The thing I find interesting however about many others when it comes to religious beliefs, about what they believe to be the truth in the scriptures, and what they keep trying to convince me of or teach me, is that they speak out against anyone believing and teaching that the only begotten Son of God is the Word who was with God in the beginning and teaching it was the only begotten Son of God who became flesh/human and came to the world of mankind and died for mankind. The JW's teach that the Word is the only begotten Son of God, and teach that it was the only begotten Son of God who became flesh/human and came to mankind to die for mankind. I don't disagree that the Word is the only begotten Son of God who was with God in the beginning. I believe that when the scriptures say the Word became flesh/human that it means it was the only begotten Son of God who became flesh/human. People want to call that a deception that's their choice, but I'm going to disagree with them.

I will continue to believe that the Word is the only begotten Son of God who was in the beginning with God, and who became flesh/human. I will continue to believe It was the only begotten Son of God who died for me then three days later it was YHWH God who resurrected the only begotten Son of God from death. I will continue to believe that those who exercise faith in this will get everlasting life.
 
I agree that no one can stand against the infallible word of God. But you and I disagree who is believing the truth that's in the infallible word of God. So be it.
Well, here's a hint. Does this sound like the kind of song a Trinitarian would sing? Apparently no one will be calling the Lamb God in heaven.

Revelation 7
9After this I looked and saw a multitude too large to count, from every nation and tribe and people and tongue, standing before the throne and before the Lamb. They were wearing white robes and holding palm branches in their hands. 10And they cried out in a loud voice:
“Salvation to our God,
who sits on the throne,

and to the Lamb!”
 
I agree that no one can stand against the infallible word of God. But you and I disagree who is believing the truth that's in the infallible word of God. So be it.

Simply PROVE what I say in #121 is wrong

Prove that Jesus Christ is not YHWH after reading Matthew 3.3 and Isaiah 40.3
 

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