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[quote:8aa5e]Solo wrote:
The Roman Catholic Cult added the Deuterocanonical Books to their Scripture in 1546 AD.

francisdesales wrote:
Not according to history.[/quote:8aa5e]

Deuterocanonical means 'belonging to the second canon'; and that term was first used in 1566 by a Catholic theologian Sixtus of Siena. Those books were omitted from early canons and their acceptance among early Christians was not at all universal like the 39 books of the Old Testemant contained in the Hebrew Bible. The canonicity of the deuteroncanical books was NOT definitively confirmed by the Roman Catholic Church until the Council of Trent in 1545-1563.

You can check those names and places yourself but unless all the history books I'm reading are wrong...that's just how it is.
 
Veritas said:
Deuterocanonical means 'belonging to the second canon'; and that term was first used in 1566 by a Catholic theologian Sixtus of Siena. Those books were omitted from early canons and their acceptance among early Christians was not at all universal like the 39 books of the Old Testemant contained in the Hebrew Bible. The canonicity of the deuteroncanical books was NOT definitively confirmed by the Roman Catholic Church until the Council of Trent in 1545-1563.

You can check those names and places yourself but unless all the history books I'm reading are wrong...that's just how it is.

These books were just as accepted and part of Scripture as the NEW TESTAMENT DEUTEROCANONICALS - James, 2 John, 3 John, Hebrews, and Revelation. They (OT AND NT Deutero's) were accepted by 3 Councils of the late 300's AD. The Canon, OT and NT, was defined by Trent, but was accepted over 1000 years before. When something is officially defined, it doesn't mean that that was the first time something was accepted by the Church. It means that "discussion is over".

I have adequately shown that the Church Fathers accepted ALL of the books we call Scriptures by the end of the second century.

My question to you, then is "Why do you accept the NT, but not the OT Deutero's, when they were defined the same time? Why aren't you being consistent and toss out the NT Deutero's as well?"

The answer is obvious - Luther didn't like the theology contained within them. He ALSO tried to eliminate Hebrews, James, and Revelation. Fortunately for Protestantism, brighter minds prevailed on the NT Deutero's. Too bad they couldn't contain the damage he had already done to Christendom by removing accepted books from the Bible.

Regards
 
francisdesales said:
These books were just as accepted and part of Scripture as the NEW TESTAMENT DEUTEROCANONICALS - James, 2 John, 3 John, Hebrews, and Revelation. They (OT AND NT Deutero's) were accepted by 3 Councils of the late 300's AD. The Canon, OT and NT, was defined by Trent, but was accepted over 1000 years before. When something is officially defined, it doesn't mean that that was the first time something was accepted by the Church. It means that "discussion is over".

I have adequately shown that the Church Fathers accepted ALL of the books we call Scriptures by the end of the second century.

I can honestly not find that anywhere. All the references I have read point to the above mentioned date of 1546.

francisdesales said:
My question to you, then is "Why do you accept the NT, but not the OT Deutero's, when they were defined the same time? Why aren't you being consistent and toss out the NT Deutero's as well?"

The answer is obvious - Luther didn't like the theology contained within them. He ALSO tried to eliminate Hebrews, James, and Revelation. Fortunately for Protestantism, brighter minds prevailed on the NT Deutero's. Too bad they couldn't contain the damage he had already done to Christendom by removing accepted books from the Bible.

Regards

Funny how information can be spun from any direction - whether it be prodestant or catholic.

Luther had questions regarding the authorship of Hebrews.
Luther had questions regarding James and it's seeming opposition to Paul's letters.
Luther had stated his views on the "obscurity" of Revelations.

However, Lutherans do not regard Luther's words as a final authority on this or any other subject. The books and words of Scripture stand on their own authority.
 
I don't stand against the Catholic Church. Never have. Nerver will. On the other hand I can't say I support all the things the Church does or doesn't do. If I did I'd probably lay claim to being a member of the Catholic Church.

But I must challenge the validity of the argument that because something isn't in the bible then it's good or it's bad. There are a lot of things we ALL follow that aren't in the bible, especially if one is searching for the word of the doctrine in question. The word trinity isn't in the bible, the word sacrament or sacraments isn't in the bible ... heck, the word bible isn't in the bible. Pediophilia isn't in the bible but we know this practice is not to be followed.

Also, what more is needed to come to the knowledge of the message Christ brought from God?

If I'm to be scholarly in biblical doctrine to follow Christ then that leaves out the mentally handicapped and those not so gifted for the focus of study of scripture. The message is simple, uncomplicated and forthright so no matter who you are or where you're from you can understand the love of God through His Son Jesus Christ. The bible isn't mental, it's not technical nor is it only for those gifted in translation, study or research. The Gospel is a message to the hearts of men, it's the "Good News" sought and held by faith to those who believed God before His Son was glorified. His message is supposed to release us from the chains of bondage, not entangle us once again with a new set of restrictions, laws, ordinances, rites, rituals and regulations. Again, the message of Christ is for the heart. The Gospel is not a new set of do's and don't's.

The agreement, "It's not in the bible" is an empty assertion that has no basis for sound debate. On any issue.
 
Vic C. said:
If I may, how does Ephesians 2:8-9 fit into the plan RCC plan of salvation?

Eph 2:8 For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:
Eph 2:9 Not of works, lest any man should boast.

The passage clearly indicates salvation is a gift from God.

Before responding to the above, I want to give my opinion that claims that the Catholic church is a cult are patently incorrect.

The word "cult" has certain connotations of mind control, charismatic leaders, and isolation from mainstream society that obviously do not apply to the RCC. To claim it is a cult is to engage in the basest form of "argument by smearing". Unfortunately, there are those in this forum that seem to have perfected that form of "debate".

My thoughts re Vic's post are not fully formulated. I will say that I believe that the nature of the "gift" of salvation is such that it can indeed be rejected when initially offered or even after years of "walking the walk". Although I wish it were not the case, I think that people can indeed "lose" their salvation.

So while it is a gift, we have to accept it and that involves more than a one time intellectual commitment to the proposition that Jesus died for my sins and is Lord of the Universe. I am presently of the mind that "accepting the gift" does indeed involve some "work" on our part. I think that salvation is overwhelmingly the work of God but I do not understand Eph 2:8-9 to imply that some level of continued commitment and effort is not required in order to not effectively "give the gift back".

I have not thought a lot about this, so my opinion is somewhat soft.
 
Luther had questions regarding the authorship of Hebrews.
Luther had questions regarding James and it's seeming opposition to Paul's letters.
Luther had stated his views on the "obscurity" of Revelations.
Good points, Fnerb. Many have reservations about the authorship of Hebrews. Also, if we look at Hebrews and James from a "Jewish" perspective, both books make sense and do not contradict Paul's revelations.

Speaking of Revelation 8-) the more I learn about that book, the more I want to pull my hair out! LOL One thing is for sure, it's NOT a book we should use to formulate Christian doctrine, which I suspect was Luther's concern. It is apocalyptic in nature and should be studied with that in mind.


Rick, good post and I agree with you, despite the fact that I too can get a bit technical at times. Especially on the finer points, when grammer and syntax are concerned. Bottom line is, scripture itself never changes, only man's understanding and interpretation does. ...and certainly the message of the Gospels NEVER changes.

Thank you Lord.
 
Fnerb said:
Luther had questions regarding the authorship of Hebrews.
Luther had questions regarding James and it's seeming opposition to Paul's letters.
Luther had stated his views on the "obscurity" of Revelations.

However, Lutherans do not regard Luther's words as a final authority on this or any other subject. The books and words of Scripture stand on their own authority.

I was thinking about this while driving to work....This goes show a couple of things..

That Luther was a ''man'' who made mistakes like the rest of us...

And that God was determined to complete his bible ''his way'' and that was the 66 books contained in the canon....
 
Drew said:
Before responding to the above, I want to give my opinion that claims that the Catholic church is a cult are patently incorrect.

The word "cult" has certain connotations of mind control, charismatic leaders, and isolation from mainstream society that obviously do not apply to the RCC. To claim it is a cult is to engage in the basest form of "argument by smearing". Unfortunately, there are those in this forum that seem to have perfected that form of "debate".

My thoughts re Vic's post are not fully formulated. I will say that I believe that the nature of the "gift" of salvation is such that it can indeed be rejected when initially offered or even after years of "walking the walk". Although I wish it were not the case, I think that people can indeed "lose" their salvation.

So while it is a gift, we have to accept it and that involves more than a one time intellectual commitment to the proposition that Jesus died for my sins and is Lord of the Universe. I am presently of the mind that "accepting the gift" does indeed involve some "work" on our part. I think that salvation is overwhelmingly the work of God but I do not understand Eph 2:8-9 to imply that some level of continued commitment and effort is not required in order to not effectively "give the gift back".

I have not thought a lot about this, so my opinion is somewhat soft.

Drew
While I do not agree with you on this, I absolutely ''respect'' your opinion on this....I think it would be good to start a separate thread on this and lets focus on these verses and see where it takes us...

Again I appreciate your opinion on this....
javier
 
I agree with Javier, I always respect your opinions, even if I don't always agree. I do "ask" you to consider two things before you "formulate" a response;

Romans 11:6 But if by grace, no longer is it of works; else grace no longer becomes grace. But if of works, it is no longer grace; else work is no longer work. (written to Jewish believers explaining how the Gentile believer has been brought into the fold... and it was not by observing any law)

Adam Clarke wrote this:

Then let these very persons remember, that their election and interest in the covenant of God has no connection with their old Jewish works; for were it of works, grace would lose its proper nature, and cease to be what it is-a free undeserved gift....
... And let this very remnant of pious Jews, who have believed in Christ Jesus, know that they are brought in, precisely in the same way as God has brought in the Gentiles; the one having no more worthiness to plead than the other; both being brought in, and continued in by God's free grace, and not by any observance of the Mosaic law.
http://www.godrules.net/library/clarke/clarkerom11.htm

and especially:

2 Cor 12:9 And He said to me, My grace is sufficient for you, for My power is perfected in weakness. Therefore, I will rather gladly boast in my weaknesses, that the power of Christ may overshadow me.

(litv)

I agree that one may initially refuse, but who in their "right mind" really believes they can undue what God has done once the gift is accepted? Does anyone really think they can rewrap the gift, hand it back to God and say, "I don't want this gift anymore". :o
 
jgredline said:
I was thinking about this while driving to work....This goes show a couple of things..

That Luther was a ''man'' who made mistakes like the rest of us...

And that God was determined to complete his bible ''his way'' and that was the 66 books contained in the canon....

What evidence do you have that there are only 66 books in the canon? Where did this "6" number mean, in Scriptures, again?

I find it ironic that you have a "double unholy" number for your canon. Seventy three, on the other hand, is perfection in the trinity...

But symbolism aside, what historical evidence can you give me that there are only 66 books? You admit Martin Luther can be wrong on the NT Deutero's, but he COULD NOT BE WRONG on the number of OT books?

I find that as very selective reasoning. God gave the Church 73 books. It is too bad that your bible doesn't have them all.

Regards
 
Solo said:
Let us let the Baltimore Catechism explain how The Catholic Church is defined in their teachings. We will look at items 136 through 149 in Lesson 11 in Part I - The Creed, Revised Edition of the BALTIMORE CATECHISM No. 2 Confraternity of Christian Doctrine 1941.

Note: According to the Roman Catholic teachings, the only changes that have been made in the Roman Catholic "Church", since the Baltimore Catechism was written, are those areas of discipline. No changes have been made in the area of doctrine and morality. the same Faith that was believed when the Baltimore Catechism was written, is the same Faith that is believed today.

Let us look at The Catholic Church as defined by the Roman Catholic Baltimore Catechism:
  • LESSON 11 -- The Catholic Church"I believe in ... the Holy Catholic Church ..."

    136. What is the Church?
    The Church is the congregation of all baptized persons united in the same true faith, the same sacrifice, and the same sacraments, under the authority of the Sovereign Pontiff and the bishops in communion with him.
    The kingdom of heaven is like a man who sowed good seed in his field. (Matthew 13:24)
Notice that "The Church" is the congregation of all baptized persons in the same true faith, the same sacrifice, and the same sacraments, under the authority of the Sovereign Pontiff and the bishops in communion with him. This describes "The Church" as the Roman Catholic Cult under the authority of the POPE and Bishops instead of under the authority of JESUS CHRIST, the WORD OF GOD.

In the next few doctrinal pronouncements of the Roman Catholic Cult designate the lie that the authority of the papacy is in direct relation to a false teaching that Peter is the HEAD of the Church. Notice that the Roman Catholic Cult needs authority to exist as it does not have the Holy Spirit guiding it; therefore, it teaches the lie that Jesus Christ made Peter the rock on which "The Church" would be built, and passed onto the pontiffs since even though the line of popes cannot be found nor kept by the same roman catholic cult that proclaims them as the authority of "The Church". Read the Confusion of the Pope.
  • 137. Who founded the Church?
    Jesus Christ founded the Church.
    And I say to thee, thou art Peter, and upon this rock I will build my Church, and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it. (Matthew 16:18)

    138. Why did Jesus Christ found the Church?
    Jesus Christ founded the Church to bring all men to eternal salvation.
    My sheep hear my voice, and I know them and they follow me. And I give them everlasting life; and they shall never perish, neither shall anyone snatch them out of my hand. (John 10:27-28)
Now we find an interesting subtle lie of the roman catholic cult. Notice that "The Church" is enabled by the indwelling of the Holy Ghost, who gives IT life. Instead of the believer having the indwelling of the Holy Spirit as the Scriptures teach, the roman catholic cult teaches another lie. Also notice that the false teachings of the roman catholic cult designates in 143, 144, and 145 that "The Church" through the indwelling of the Holy Ghost, gives "The Church the ability to "RULE OVER the faithful members in the name of Christ. Cultic rule!!!
  • 139. How is the Church enabled to lead men to salvation?
    The Church is enabled to lead men to salvation by the indwelling of the Holy Ghost, who gives it life.

    140. When was the dwelling of the Holy Ghost in the Church first visibly manifested?
    The dwelling of the Holy Ghost in the Church was first visibly manifested on Pentecost Sunday, when He came down upon the apostles in the form of tongues of fire.
    And when the days of Pentecost were drawing to a close, they were all together in one place. And suddenly there came a sound from heaven, as of a violent wind blowing, and it filled the whole house where they were sitting. And there appeared to them parted tongues as of fire, which settled upon each of them. And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost and began to speak in foreign tongues, even as the Holy Ghost prompted them to speak. (Acts 2:1-4)

    141. How long will the Holy Ghost dwell in the Church?
    The Holy Ghost will dwell in the Church until the end of time.
    And I will ask the Father and he will give you another Advocate to dwell with you forever, the Spirit of truth whom the world cannot receive, because it neither sees him nor knows him. (John 14:16)

    142. Who sent the Holy Ghost to dwell in the Church?
    God the Father and God the Son sent the Holy Ghost to dwell in the Church.

    143. What does the indwelling of the Holy Ghost enable the Church to do?
    The indwelling of the Holy Ghost enables the Church to teach, to sanctify, and to rule the faithful in the name of Christ.
    But when he, the Spirit of truth, has come, he will teach you all the truth. For he will not speak on his own authority, but whatever he will hear he will speak, and the things that are to come he will declare to you. (John 16:13)

    144. What is meant by teaching, sanctifying, and ruling in the name of Christ?
    By teaching, sanctifying, and ruling in the name of Christ is meant that the Church always does the will of its Divine Founder, who remains forever its invisible Head.

    145. To whom did Christ give the power to teach, to sanctify, and to rule the members of His Church?
    Christ gave the power to teach, to sanctify, and to rule the members of His Church to the apostles, the first bishops of the Church.
    He who hears you, hears me; and he who rejects you rejects me; and he who rejects me, rejects him who sent me. (Luke 10:16)
The remaining four catechism teachings impart the impression that the RULE OVER THE LAITY was passed on from Peter to each pope in succession. Notice that 148 defines "The Church" in the most Clearest Fashion. THE POWER power should be passed down to PETER'S successor, the POPE, THE BISHOP OF ROME, WHO IS THE VICAR OF CHRIST ON EARTH AND THE VISIBLE HEAD OF "THE CHURCH"!
  • 146. Did Christ intend that this power should be exercised by the apostles alone?
    No, Christ intended that this power should be exercised also by their successors, the bishops of the Church.
    And they prayed and said, "Thou, Lord, who knowest the hearts of all, show which of these two thou has chosen to take the place in this ministry and apostleship from which Judas fell away to go to his own place." (Acts 1:24-25)

    147. Did Christ give special power in His Church to any one of the apostles?
    Christ gave special power in His Church to Saint Peter by making him the head of the apostles and the chief teacher and ruler of the entire Church.
    But Peter, standing up with the Eleven, lifted up his voice and spoke out to them. (Acts 2:14)

    148. Did Christ intend that the special power of chief teacher and ruler of the entire Church should be exercised by Saint Peter alone?
    Christ did not intend that the special power of chief teacher and ruler of the entire Church should be exercised by Saint Peter alone, but intended that this power should be passed down to his successor, the Pope, the Bishop of Rome, who is the Vicar of Christ on earth and the visible head of the Church.

    149. Who assist the bishops in the care of souls?
    The priests, especially parish priests, assist the bishops in the care of souls.
    And when they had appointed presbyters for them in each church, with prayer and fasting, they commended them to the Lord in whom they had believed. (Acts 14:22)

The roman catholic cult covets power, and if Peter were here today, he would condemn this purveyor of false doctrines, and Paul would pronounce it accursed. Any questions?

I would like to add this to anyone interested in the Catholic Church and its definition of itself. The Church tried to do this at Vatican One, completing only part of its work before the Council was interrupted by the Franco-Prussian War of 1870. Infallibility was defined - but believed from the beginning. However, this was only part of what the Church desired to reflect upon. The "minutes" show that there was to be more documents forthcoming. Vatican Two continued the teachings of the Church. This is seen in Lumen Gentium and Gaudium et Spes. This gives us a more clear understanding of how the Church sees itself with respect to itself, (clergy and laity) as well as how the Church sees itself in comparison to the rest of the world. In this document, the Church realized that it was the fullness of the faith - BUT NOT the entirety of its members existed in its visible form. That is why, in the newer Catechism that explains this teaching better (the Baltimore Catechism came before Vatican 2), we find what the Church had always believed regarding WHO was in the Church and what that meant. Read the Constitution on the Church and you will find a clearer teaching on this matter.

Regards
 
Fnerb said:
I can honestly not find that anywhere. All the references I have read point to the above mentioned date of 1546.

Ah. Here, I believe, is the confusion.

The Catholic Church defines something "officially" when a teaching needs to be authoritatively determined and more precisely defined. Thus, the Church had always believed that Jesus was God. They worshipped Him AS God in their Liturgy. However, in the 300's, a priest named Arius taught that Jesus was NOT God, NOT the same essence as the Father. He used Scriptures to back up his claim. He presented a legitimate argument that drew many people in the East to follow him. St. Jerome said "the Church woke up and found itself nearly Arian". It was considered one of the most serious of heresies to invade the Church. Because of this, the Church felt it necessary to DEFINE what WE believe. We "know" Jesus is God - the Spirit tells us so. We realize that He is because we worship Him. We read the Scriptures in the same manner. Not as if He is a demigod. Or that God inhabited Jesus body at the baptism and left it before he died on the cross.

This short history lesson is to give you the reason WHY the Church defines things. It is our leaders' responsibility to protect the "Traditions" (teachings) given, to feed and protect the flock from the "wolves". Thus, the Church, in this case, emphatically denies Arius' claim and at Nicea in 325, the Church states that Christ is divine. Using the powers given to her from above, the Church declares the belief of the Church using her power to bind and loosen.

Now, regarding the subject at hand, the Deuterocanonicals. The same thing is at work. Several councils in the West had gotten together (Carthage and Rome) and came up with the same OT/NT list. Other men, such as St. Augustine, did the same thing. This list, this canon, was accepted as Scriptures. While several men through the next 1000 years would disagree, this voice was never serious enough to warrant a counciliar declaration (such as at Nicea with Jesus' divinity).

With the Protestant Reformation and Luther, however, that changed. There were more serious threats to the Tradition and Canon that had been previously accepted by the Church. So at Trent, the issue was closed. The Canon was OFFICIALLY set - although it had been set in the late 300's. I have also posted many writings from Fathers who had recognized that the Deutero's were Scripture, men such as Origen, Basil, Ambrose, Hilary of Poiters, Tertullian, and the rest of the big names preceding 400 AD. Thus, we can say that the Church had already accepted the Deuterocanonicals - both OT and NT - before 400 AD. It was officially recognized to cut off all argument at Trent.

Fnerb said:
Funny how information can be spun from any direction - whether it be prodestant or catholic.

Luther had questions regarding the authorship of Hebrews.
Luther had questions regarding James and it's seeming opposition to Paul's letters.
Luther had stated his views on the "obscurity" of Revelations.

However, Lutherans do not regard Luther's words as a final authority on this or any other subject. The books and words of Scripture stand on their own authority.

That is a circular argument, Fnerb. The Scriptures do not stand on their own authority because they do not witness to THEMSELVES. The vast majority of the NT books do not claim to be inspired by God. They are writings, bibliographies and moral exhortations. They were initially written to aid Christians maintain their faith. The writers were not writing letters with the idea of putting together a larger collection in 40 years. The ONLY thing that allows us to KNOW the Scriptures is the human witnesses that look at the writings - ALL of them - and are able to determine which ones WERE inspired based on what they had ALREADY BEEN TAUGHT ORALLY! Thus, those men were given teachings by the Apostles. When coming across a writing, they were able to use that knowledge and analyze the letter, judging whether it was a legitimate representation of their beliefs. Thus, the Gospel of Thomas was eliminated, although it claimed to have been written by an Apostle. Upon reading it, the men who sat at the foot of the Apostles recognized it was NOT Scriptures BECAUSE it didn't mesh with what they had been taught.

It doesn't work the other way around, though. This would be a circular argument to take an already-compiled collection and then say "it is Scriptures" based on what it already says. Christianity is a historical religion and relies on its witnesses and those men whom they have passed on the witness to.

Regards
 
First, thank you for the "history lesson". It was informative.

francisdesales said:
That is a circular argument, Fnerb. The Scriptures do not stand on their own authority because they do not witness to THEMSELVES. The vast majority of the NT books do not claim to be inspired by God. They are writings, bibliographies and moral exhortations. They were initially written to aid Christians maintain their faith. The writers were not writing letters with the idea of putting together a larger collection in 40 years. The ONLY thing that allows us to KNOW the Scriptures is the human witnesses that look at the writings - ALL of them - and are able to determine which ones WERE inspired based on what they had ALREADY BEEN TAUGHT ORALLY! Thus, those men were given teachings by the Apostles. When coming across a writing, they were able to use that knowledge and analyze the letter, judging whether it was a legitimate representation of their beliefs. Thus, the Gospel of Thomas was eliminated, although it claimed to have been written by an Apostle. Upon reading it, the men who sat at the foot of the Apostles recognized it was NOT Scriptures BECAUSE it didn't mesh with what they had been taught.

It doesn't work the other way around, though. This would be a circular argument to take an already-compiled collection and then say "it is Scriptures" based on what it already says. Christianity is a historical religion and relies on its witnesses and those men whom they have passed on the witness to.

Regards

Just a few reactive thoughts...

My first thought while reading this was that without Sola Scripture, we have no litmus test. I understand that early teachings were not written down but were taught orally by the apostles. However, we do not have the luxury of having Paul or Peter around to give sermons. All we have is the bible. The only thing we have that we can use to test any thoughts, words, actions, or even doctrine is Gods Word. Therefore if something we do or say, or some form of church doctrine openly is against scripture, we much distance ourselves from it.

However as this relates to the Deutoronicals, I think I am understanding your point. You are saying that these books are indeed scripture, and therefore are tested against His word.

Have you caused me to doubt my faith or my membership of a Lutheran synod? No. However, you have caused a spark that I wish to delve deeper into. Could you by chance provide an sources for the above information? As I said, the few sites that I looked up did point to 1546.

Thanks Fran.
 
Fnerb said:
Just a few reactive thoughts...

My first thought while reading this was that without Sola Scripture, we have no litmus test. I understand that early teachings were not written down but were taught orally by the apostles. However, we do not have the luxury of having Paul or Peter around to give sermons. All we have is the bible. The only thing we have that we can use to test any thoughts, words, actions, or even doctrine is Gods Word. Therefore if something we do or say, or some form of church doctrine openly is against scripture, we much distance ourselves from it.

The operative word is "SOLO". It means "alone". The bible alone does not stand alone. It stands WITH a community of witnesses who verify that it is true. These same witnesses have received the original teachings and can interpret it correctly. Books read in a vacuum can be misinterpreted. Yes, the Bible is critical to knowing our faith. It is very important to us Catholics. Where we disagree on is destroying the witnesses that support the Bible. The word "solo" is never once implied regarding the Bible as a rule of faith. I cannot comprehend this very basic lack in the Bible IF it was a true rule!

Fnerb said:
However as this relates to the Deutoronicals, I think I am understanding your point. You are saying that these books are indeed scripture, and therefore are tested against His word.

Have you caused me to doubt my faith or my membership of a Lutheran synod? No. However, you have caused a spark that I wish to delve deeper into. Could you by chance provide an sources for the above information? As I said, the few sites that I looked up did point to 1546.

Thanks Fran.

My intent is not to drag you kicking out of your particular faith community. I only present information about my faith and let God do what He wills. I don't see how regarding the Deuterocanonicals will instantly make someone Catholic or lead them to move from Lutheranism.

A lot of my research was done with the Church Fathers. However, here is some information on the history.

The first is a list of allusions of OT Deutero's found in the NT. It further lists some of the many illustrations of how the Church Fathers considered the Deutero's as Scriptures. A tell-tale sign is when they quote from a Protocanonical book, like Exodus, and in the same sentence, quote from a Deuterocanonical book like Wisdom without making any distinction. When a person makes an argument from two sources, he regards them as having the same authority. Otherwise, his argument is diluted. In some cases, these Fathers explicitly calls them "Scriptures".

http://scripturecatholic.com/deuterocanon.html

This next one is a list of quotes taken from the New Testament when the NT author quotes the OT. In the majority of cases, the NT writer quotes the Septuagint, rather than the Hebrew version. This leads us to believe (as well as when people like Origen state it) that the Christian Church used the Greek version of the OT which included what we call the Deuterocanonicals. There was no distinction back then, a separate section in the back of the Bible, as the KJV had done. It is also instructive to know that the Jews SPECIFICALLY BANNED the Septaugint BECAUSE the Christians were using it and wanted to quash the Christian sect and their Scriptures that differed.

http://scripturecatholic.com/septuagint.html

This site, while not dealing with the OT, discusses in detail how the Church felt about the NEW TESTAMENT Deuterocanonicals. This is very rarely discussed by Protestant apologists because there is no reason to accept the NT Deut's but not the OT Deut's which were accepted at the same exact councils in the late 300's. Upon reading the various matrixes included, you will see that some of the Church Fathers didn't think that Hebrews or Revelation belonged in Scriptures. There was some discussion regarding the NT Deut's just as there was with the OT.

When Marcion made a concerted move to set his own canon which ELIMINATED the ENTIRE OT and much of the NT, the Church finally had to do something to standardize what the Christian church would call "Scriptures". At that point, you begin to see a number of "lists" by many Fathers. The question, of course, is why does the intelligent Protestant accept without question 2 John, 3 John, James, Hebrews, and Revelation - while all seven of the OT Deuterocanonicals are rejected out of hand? Because of the Jews? The Jews also rejected the NT Deut's!

http://www.ntcanon.org/

The last site is a link to the Catholic Encycylopedia on the OT canon. The purpose here is to give information on the Councils that accepted the OT canon as we have it today, ratified 1000 years at Trent. I have found this Encyclopedia to be pretty thorough on historical entries. I find that many Protestants will quote from it as an authority when trying to make a point about something else. Of course, it is a Catholic source, but I find this one does not have an apologetic basis. It gives all the evidence, even when incrinimating, such as on "Indulgences". If you read it, I am certain you will come away with the idea that it was presented in a neutral manner. For example:

"At Jerusalem there was a renascence, perhaps a survival, of Jewish ideas, the tendency there being distinctly unfavourable to the deuteros. St. Cyril of that see, while vindicating for the Church the right to fix the Canon, places them among the apocrypha and forbids all books to be read privately which are not read in the churches. In Antioch and Syria the attitude was more favourable. St. Epiphanius shows hesitation about the rank of the deuteros; he esteemed them, but they had not the same place as the Hebrew books in his regard. The historian Eusebius attests the widespread doubts in his time; he classes them as antilegomena, or disputed writings, and, like Athanasius, places them in a class intermediate between the books received by all and the apocrypha."

Here is a quick sentence on those Councils that Trent merely affirmed later...

"The Synod of Hippo (393) and the three of Carthage (393, 397, and 419), in which, doubtless, Augustine was the leading spirit, found it necessary to deal explicitly with the question of the Canon, and drew up identical lists from which no sacred books are excluded. These councils base their canon on tradition and liturgical usage."

http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/03267a.htm

I hope this helps your search. Needless to say, this has nothing to do with other issues that we may still disagree on.

Regards
 
francisdesales said:
My intent is not to drag you kicking out of your particular faith community. I only present information about my faith and let God do what He wills. I don't see how regarding the Deuterocanonicals will instantly make someone Catholic or lead them to move from Lutheranism.

A lot of my research was done with the Church Fathers. However, here is some information on the history.

The first is a list of allusions of OT Deutero's found in the NT. It further lists some of the many illustrations of how the Church Fathers considered the Deutero's as Scriptures. A tell-tale sign is when they quote from a Protocanonical book, like Exodus, and in the same sentence, quote from a Deuterocanonical book like Wisdom without making any distinction. When a person makes an argument from two sources, he regards them as having the same authority. Otherwise, his argument is diluted. In some cases, these Fathers explicitly calls them "Scriptures".

http://scripturecatholic.com/deuterocanon.html

This next one is a list of quotes taken from the New Testament when the NT author quotes the OT. In the majority of cases, the NT writer quotes the Septuagint, rather than the Hebrew version. This leads us to believe (as well as when people like Origen state it) that the Christian Church used the Greek version of the OT which included what we call the Deuterocanonicals. There was no distinction back then, a separate section in the back of the Bible, as the KJV had done. It is also instructive to know that the Jews SPECIFICALLY BANNED the Septaugint BECAUSE the Christians were using it and wanted to quash the Christian sect and their Scriptures that differed.

http://scripturecatholic.com/septuagint.html

This site, while not dealing with the OT, discusses in detail how the Church felt about the NEW TESTAMENT Deuterocanonicals. This is very rarely discussed by Protestant apologists because there is no reason to accept the NT Deut's but not the OT Deut's which were accepted at the same exact councils in the late 300's. Upon reading the various matrixes included, you will see that some of the Church Fathers didn't think that Hebrews or Revelation belonged in Scriptures. There was some discussion regarding the NT Deut's just as there was with the OT.

When Marcion made a concerted move to set his own canon which ELIMINATED the ENTIRE OT and much of the NT, the Church finally had to do something to standardize what the Christian church would call "Scriptures". At that point, you begin to see a number of "lists" by many Fathers. The question, of course, is why does the intelligent Protestant accept without question 2 John, 3 John, James, Hebrews, and Revelation - while all seven of the OT Deuterocanonicals are rejected out of hand? Because of the Jews? The Jews also rejected the NT Deut's!

http://www.ntcanon.org/

The last site is a link to the Catholic Encycylopedia on the OT canon. The purpose here is to give information on the Councils that accepted the OT canon as we have it today, ratified 1000 years at Trent. I have found this Encyclopedia to be pretty thorough on historical entries. I find that many Protestants will quote from it as an authority when trying to make a point about something else. Of course, it is a Catholic source, but I find this one does not have an apologetic basis. It gives all the evidence, even when incrinimating, such as on "Indulgences". If you read it, I am certain you will come away with the idea that it was presented in a neutral manner. For example:

"At Jerusalem there was a renascence, perhaps a survival, of Jewish ideas, the tendency there being distinctly unfavourable to the deuteros. St. Cyril of that see, while vindicating for the Church the right to fix the Canon, places them among the apocrypha and forbids all books to be read privately which are not read in the churches. In Antioch and Syria the attitude was more favourable. St. Epiphanius shows hesitation about the rank of the deuteros; he esteemed them, but they had not the same place as the Hebrew books in his regard. The historian Eusebius attests the widespread doubts in his time; he classes them as antilegomena, or disputed writings, and, like Athanasius, places them in a class intermediate between the books received by all and the apocrypha."

Here is a quick sentence on those Councils that Trent merely affirmed later...

"The Synod of Hippo (393) and the three of Carthage (393, 397, and 419), in which, doubtless, Augustine was the leading spirit, found it necessary to deal explicitly with the question of the Canon, and drew up identical lists from which no sacred books are excluded. These councils base their canon on tradition and liturgical usage."

http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/03267a.htm

I hope this helps your search. Needless to say, this has nothing to do with other issues that we may still disagree on.

Regards

So again, which book do you believe over the bible? :o If no book, then the bible is your final authority, is it not? If not, then again, which book is? :-?
 
Heidi said:
So again, which book do you believe over the bible? :o If no book, then the bible is your final authority, is it not? If not, then again, which book is? :-?

would you show me where the in the bible that the bible says it is the FINAL authority. now make sure it says its the FINAL authority.
 
Heidi said:
So again, which book do you believe over the bible? :o If no book, then the bible is your final authority, is it not? If not, then again, which book is? :-?

None. But that doesn't make it the ONLY source of revelation. That is your convoluted logic at work. NOTHING is above the Bible and NOTHING is above Apostolic Tradition, since they BOTH come to us from God.
 
Apologetics sometimes helps:

Special revelation + general revelation = God's total revelation

Scripture is special revelation, everything outside scripture that is true together with scripture makes up God's total truth. Most churches would approve of this apologetic model - I think (?). It is supposed to cover all contingences.

If apologetics doesn't help apologies often do.
 
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